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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 28-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(95) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

     "Ruling on Zakat-ul-Fitr“    

Date: 9/9/1426 AH, corresponding to 12/10/2005.

 

 

Question:

What is the ruling on Zakat-ul-Fitr ?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

Zakat-ul-Fitr is the Zakat due in Ramadan on every Muslim who can afford to give it, whether young or old, male or female. Ibn Umar narrated: “Allah's Apostle enjoined the payment of one Sa' of dates or one Sa' of barley as Zakat-ul-Fitr on every Muslim slave or free, male or female, young or old, and he ordered that it be paid before the people went out to offer the 'Id prayer. (One Sa' = 3 Kilograms approx).”{Bukhari}.

It has been enjoined for what is mentioned in the following Hadith: Ibn ’Abbas (RAA) narrated: "The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) enjoined Zakat-ul-fitr on the one who fasts (i.e. fasted during the month of Ramadan) to purify him from any indecent act or speech and for the purpose of providing food for the needy. It is accepted as Zakah for the person who pays it before the Eid prayer and it is Sadaqah (i.e. voluntary charity) for the person who pays it after the Eid prayer." [Related by Abu Dawud and Ibn Majah and Al-Hakim graded it as Sahih].

A Muslim is obliged to give for himself and on behalf of those whom he is obliged to provide for: wife, children,  his Muslim servants, and his baby who is born before the Eid prayer.

Zakat-ul-Fitr is one Sa' of dates or one Sa' of barley or the like from the regular food of the people of that country.

A Muslim is free to choose from these items in accordance with his financial capability, and it is permissible to give the monetary value of the Sa`, so as to facilitate for Muslims and do what is best for the poor. The monetary value of the Sa` of each item is estimated by the circulated price of that item. In the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, the regular food is wheat; therefore, the monetary value of Zakat-ul-Fitr for the year (2005) was estimated at six hundred and fifty fils as a minimum, and whoever gives more Allah will multiply his reward.

Its due time is after the sunset of Eid night and before the Eid prayer. This is based on the Hadith narrated by Ibn Umar: “The Prophet ordered the people to pay Zakat-ul-Fitr before going to the 'Id prayer." {Bukhari}. However, it is permissible to give it during Ramadan to facilitate for the poor. And Allah knows best.

 

 

 

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izzaldeen Al-Tamimi

Dr. AbdulMajeed Al-Salaheen

Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi

Dr. Yousef Ghyzaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

Dr. Abdukareem Al-Khasawneh

Sheikh Sae`id Hijjawi

Sheikh Nae`im Mujahid

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Summarized Fatawaa

A man who was on travel prayed Duhr as four Rakhas upon leaving Tafilah heading to Amman. However, on his way to Amman, he prayed Asir as two Rakhas (Shortened). Is what he did correct from an Islamic perspective?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
What he did is correct; he is liable for nothing before Allah The Almighty, since combining and shortening prayers during travel are two separate concessions. Therefore, it is permissible for a traveler to shorten prayer without combining it with another. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?

The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.

What is Aqeeqah?

It is the sheep slaughtered on the seventh day from the child`s birth, and it is a confirmed Sunnah after the Prophet (PBUH).

Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?

It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.

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