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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(318): "Ruling when the Donor Stipulates Replacing the Waqf with another"

Date Added : 08-01-2023

Resolution No. (318), By The Board of Iftaa, Researches and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling when the Donor Stipulates Replacing the Waqf with another"

Date: (21 Jumada al-Ula, 1444 AH), corresponding to (15/12/2022 AD).

 

 

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

In its fifteenth meeting held on the above date, the Board of Iftaa` reviewed the letter sent from His Excellency the Minister of Awqaf and Islamic affairs Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh. It read as follows:

According to the Waqf deed presented by Mrs. X, she stipulated selling her endowed flat and building a mosque instead. A copy of this deed No.(1/93/5) (5/12/2006) issued by the Sharia Court of Shmesani area has been attached.

From an Islamic perspective, is the condition of this donor considered valid?

After deliberating, the Board decided what follows:

If the endower stipulated replacing the Waqf (Religious endowment) with another, through buying, selling or direct replacement, then this is approved on the level of fatwa and the judiciary based on the view of the Hanafi jurists who said that in such case the condition of the endower is considerable. It was mentioned in [Al-Fatawa Al-Hindiyah] and other Hanafi books: "If the endower said: "This land of mine is a Waqf for charity till the Day of Judgment provided that it is allowed for me to replace it with something else. It is considered a Waqf out of Istihsan (Application of discretion in legal matters) if the second Waqf was bought with the same price of the first. This view was also given in the book [Moheet Al-Sarkhasi]. Moreover, the second Waqf takes the same conditions of the first and there is no need to renew the conditions of the Waqf in the first place. This was also mentioned in [Fatawa Khadi Khan]. In addition, if the endower stipulated replacing the Waqf with another but didn`t specify that the latter should be a piece of land or a house and sold the first Waqf, then he/she is allowed to replace it with a Waqf of the same kind; a land  or a house. Similarly, if the donor didn`t specify a country, then the replacement may take place in the country of his choice. This view was mentioned in [Al-Kholasah]: "If the endower said that he/she should replace the Waqf with a house, then he/she isn`t allowed to replace it with a piece of land and vice-versa."

In conclusion, the Iftaa` Board is of the view that it is permissible to fulfill the condition of the endower, sell the abovementioned flat for the highest price, then use that amount to build a mosque instead. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

 

Grand Mufti of Jordan, Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

Prof. Mahmoud Al-Sartawi/ Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawi/ Member

Prof. Amjad Rasheed/ Member

Prof. Adam Nooh Al-Qhodah/ Member

Dr. Jameel Khatatbeh/ Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Younes al-Zou`bi/ Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is Tarawih prayer?

Tarawih prayer is the night prayer (Qiyam) performed during the month of Ramadan. It is called "Tarawih" because Muslims used to prolong the standing (qiyam) in it and take brief rests after every four rak‘ahs.

What is the ruling on praying while wearing shoes?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

There is no sin for a Muslim to perform prayer while wearing their sandals or shoes, provided they are free from any impurities (najasa). It was narrated that Anas bin Malik (may Allah be pleased with him) was asked: 'Did the Prophet ﷺ pray in his sandals?' He replied: 'Yes.'" (Related by Al-Bukhari).

It is stated in Fath al-Bari (Vol.1/P.494) by Ibn Hajar (may Allah have mercy on him): "Regarding the phrase 'praying in his sandals,' Ibn Battal said: 'This is understood to apply as long as there is no impurity on them; furthermore, this is considered one of the legal concessions (rukhas)." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the meaning of the Prophetic statement that a boy is held in pledge (murtahan) for his 'aqīqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
The first interpretation: That if the boy dies in infancy without an 'aqīqah having been performed on his behalf, he will not intercede for his parents on the Day of Resurrection. This is the position of Imam Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, and Imam al-Khaṭṭābī concurred with him, stating: "The finest of what has been said regarding this matter is the position adopted by Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal." — [Fatḥ al-Bārī by Ibn Ḥajar,{Vol.9/P.594]
The second interpretation: That the child is likened to a pledged object (marhūn) — one from which full benefit and enjoyment cannot be derived until it is redeemed. A blessing is only made complete upon the one blessed when they fulfil the obligation of gratitude (shukr), and the prescribed expression of gratitude for this particular blessing is what the Prophet ﷺ established as Sunnah — namely, the slaughtering of the 'aqīqah on behalf of the newborn as an act of thankfulness to Allah the Almighty and as a supplication for the wellbeing and safety of the child. This is the position of Mullā 'Alī al-Qārī. See: [Mirqāt al-Mafātīḥ Sharḥ Mishkāt al-Maṣābīḥ, Vol.7/P.2688]
And Allah Almighty knows best.

I`m a pious Muslim woman, but my husband isn`t, what should I do?

You should exercise patience, make supplication that Allah guides him to the straight path, and keep advising him kindly.

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