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It isn`t Permissible to Expand Government Expenditures even within the Budget
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 18-10-2022

It isn`t Permissible to Expand Government Expenditures even within the Budget

 

State budget is prepared based on the needs of government departments over the coming year. However, if there is no need for spending , then it isn`t permissible to do so, because every person in charge is in a position of trust as regards the public money at their disposal. If the money isn`t spent according to the actual need, then this is disobeying Allah, betraying trust, and making every member of society their opponent before Allah on the Day of Judgment.

Budget surplus must be returned to the public treasury. Last year, the Iftaa` Department returned (488.000 JDs). This is attested to in the following narration: Ibn 'Umar (May Allah be pleased with them) reported: The Prophet (PBUH) said, "All of you are guardians and are responsible for your subjects. The ruler is a guardian of his subjects, the man is a guardian of his family, the woman is a guardian and is responsible for her husband's house and his offspring; and so all of you are guardians and are responsible for your subjects." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim].

By Grand Mufti,

Dr. Nooh Salaman Al-Qhodat

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for the mother to give her children from the Zakah (obligatory charity) of her money?

It is permissible for the mother to give her children from the Zakah of her money if they are Zakah-eligible recipients, and she isn`t obliged to provide for them.

If a woman becomes pure from menstruation before the Fajr Adhan in Ramadan, is she required to fast?

If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) before the Fajr Adhan, she must fast, as the impediment preventing her from fasting has been removed. The Sharia maxim in this regard states: "When the impediment is removed, the obligation returns."
She should then make the intention to fast before Fajr and perform ghusl (ritual purification) for prayer, whether before or after Fajr.

What is the meaning of the Prophetic statement that a boy is held in pledge (murtahan) for his 'aqīqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
The first interpretation: That if the boy dies in infancy without an 'aqīqah having been performed on his behalf, he will not intercede for his parents on the Day of Resurrection. This is the position of Imam Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, and Imam al-Khaṭṭābī concurred with him, stating: "The finest of what has been said regarding this matter is the position adopted by Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal." — [Fatḥ al-Bārī by Ibn Ḥajar,{Vol.9/P.594]
The second interpretation: That the child is likened to a pledged object (marhūn) — one from which full benefit and enjoyment cannot be derived until it is redeemed. A blessing is only made complete upon the one blessed when they fulfil the obligation of gratitude (shukr), and the prescribed expression of gratitude for this particular blessing is what the Prophet ﷺ established as Sunnah — namely, the slaughtering of the 'aqīqah on behalf of the newborn as an act of thankfulness to Allah the Almighty and as a supplication for the wellbeing and safety of the child. This is the position of Mullā 'Alī al-Qārī. See: [Mirqāt al-Mafātīḥ Sharḥ Mishkāt al-Maṣābīḥ, Vol.7/P.2688]
And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

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