What is the ruling on the cessation of blood after (40) days from delivery, but later continued sporadically during two days of Ramadan?
Once postpartum bleeding (Nifas) ceases, and the woman is certain that it won`t reoccur, then she becomes ritually pure and so she is free to make Ghusl (purificatory bath), pray, and fast. If the bleeding reoccurs before fifteen days from its cessation, and before the end of (60) days after delivery, then the ruling on postpartum bleeding is effective, and her fasting and prayer are null and void, thus she must make up the fasting that she missed and not the prayer during those particular days.
If a father stops his daughter from getting married, is it permissible for her to conclude the marriage contract herself?
It is permissible for the father to stop his daughter from getting married if there was a lawful reason for that, and she isn`t allowed to conclude the marriage contract without her guardian. However, if her father denied her right in getting married for an unlawful reason, then she should go to court.
What are the Sharia consequences when the sacrificial time for the uḍḥiyyah comes to an end?
All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
If the sun sets at the end of the last of the Days of Tashrīq and the sacrificial animal (uḍḥiyyah) has not yet been slaughtered, then its prescribed time has elapsed. Should one slaughter it thereafter, it will not be considered a valid uḍḥiyyah.
However, if the sacrifice was vowed (mandhūrah), then it remains obligatory to slaughter it — and it shall be carried out as a make-up (qaḍā') of the vow, with its meat distributed in the rightful channels designated for such sacrifices.
It is stated in Bushrā al-Karīm (p. 702): "If one slaughters after the sunset of the last of the Days of Tashrīq... it isn`t considered a valid uḍḥiyyah, unless it was vowed — in which case it is carried out as qaḍā'."
And Allah Almighty knows best.
I`m keeping a plot of land (10 Dunums) for my children. Is it liable for Zakah?
Praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds.
Land that is purchased with the intention of ownership and personal benefit—meaning to retain it for use and not for trade—is not subject to zakāh, as such property is not considered from trade commodities (ʿurūḍ al-tijārah).
It is stated in Al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr:
“If it is property and one intends it for trade, then zakāh is due upon it; but if he intends it for personal possession, then no zakāh is due upon it.” And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
