Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(318): "Ruling when the Donor Stipulates Replacing the Waqf with another"

Date Added : 08-01-2023

Resolution No. (318), By The Board of Iftaa, Researches and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling when the Donor Stipulates Replacing the Waqf with another"

Date: (21 Jumada al-Ula, 1444 AH), corresponding to (15/12/2022 AD).

 

 

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

In its fifteenth meeting held on the above date, the Board of Iftaa` reviewed the letter sent from His Excellency the Minister of Awqaf and Islamic affairs Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh. It read as follows:

According to the Waqf deed presented by Mrs. X, she stipulated selling her endowed flat and building a mosque instead. A copy of this deed No.(1/93/5) (5/12/2006) issued by the Sharia Court of Shmesani area has been attached.

From an Islamic perspective, is the condition of this donor considered valid?

After deliberating, the Board decided what follows:

If the endower stipulated replacing the Waqf (Religious endowment) with another, through buying, selling or direct replacement, then this is approved on the level of fatwa and the judiciary based on the view of the Hanafi jurists who said that in such case the condition of the endower is considerable. It was mentioned in [Al-Fatawa Al-Hindiyah] and other Hanafi books: "If the endower said: "This land of mine is a Waqf for charity till the Day of Judgment provided that it is allowed for me to replace it with something else. It is considered a Waqf out of Istihsan (Application of discretion in legal matters) if the second Waqf was bought with the same price of the first. This view was also given in the book [Moheet Al-Sarkhasi]. Moreover, the second Waqf takes the same conditions of the first and there is no need to renew the conditions of the Waqf in the first place. This was also mentioned in [Fatawa Khadi Khan]. In addition, if the endower stipulated replacing the Waqf with another but didn`t specify that the latter should be a piece of land or a house and sold the first Waqf, then he/she is allowed to replace it with a Waqf of the same kind; a land  or a house. Similarly, if the donor didn`t specify a country, then the replacement may take place in the country of his choice. This view was mentioned in [Al-Kholasah]: "If the endower said that he/she should replace the Waqf with a house, then he/she isn`t allowed to replace it with a piece of land and vice-versa."

In conclusion, the Iftaa` Board is of the view that it is permissible to fulfill the condition of the endower, sell the abovementioned flat for the highest price, then use that amount to build a mosque instead. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

 

Grand Mufti of Jordan, Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

Prof. Mahmoud Al-Sartawi/ Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawi/ Member

Prof. Amjad Rasheed/ Member

Prof. Adam Nooh Al-Qhodah/ Member

Dr. Jameel Khatatbeh/ Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Younes al-Zou`bi/ Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

I`m infatuated with a man, is it permissible for me to make supplication that he falls in love with me and becomes my husband?

Islam has honored women by being proposed to by men, and not the other way around, so it is inappropriate for a woman to propose to a man since one who hastens in asking for a thing prematurely shall be punished by deprivation. In fact, such a phenomenon is the result of unlawful mixing between the two sexes.

Is it permissible for a person to give the Zakah (obligatory charity) to his daughter-in-law?

Yes, it is permissible for a person to give the Zakah to his daughter-in-law if she was poor, and none provided for particularly by whom are obliged to provide for her. And Allah Knows Best.

Is Zakat al-Fitr obligatory for an unborn child (fetus)?

Zakat al-Fitr is not obligatory for a fetus. However, if the child is born before sunset on the last day of Ramadan, then Zakat al-Fitr must be given on their behalf.

What is the ruling on omitting the prostration of recitation?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The prostration of recitation (Sajdat al-Tilawah) is a Sunnah for both the reader and the listener. There is no sin in omitting it, though doing so results in missing a great reward. Muslim narrated from Abu Hurairah (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet ﷺ said: 'When the son of Adam recites a verse of prostration and prostrates, Shaytan withdraws weeping, saying: "Woe to him! (and in the narration of Abu Kuraib: "Woe to me!") The son of Adam was commanded to prostrate and he prostrated, so Paradise is his; and I was commanded to prostrate and I refused, so the Fire is mine."'
 
Sheikh al-Islam Imam al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) stated: 'It is recommended to prostrate immediately after reciting or hearing a verse of prostration. If one delays it but the interval is short, he may still prostrate. However, if the interval is long, the opportunity is missed.' [Rawdat al-Talibin Vol.1/P.323].
 
Furthermore, the prostration of recitation becomes obligatory (Wajib) in congregational prayer if the Imam prostrates, out of the necessity of following him. And Allah the Exalted knows best.