Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(32): “Ruling on Writing the Quran in a Style other than the Ottoman“

Date Added : 28-10-2015

Resolution No.(32): “Ruling on Writing the Quran in a Style other than the Ottoman“

Date: 7/11/1413 corresponding to 29/4/1993 AD.

The Board has received the following question:

What is the Sharia ruling on the following: writing the Noble Quran in a style other than the Ottoman? Adhering to one narration as regards the number of Quranic verses? Writing “ الله-محمد ” in a raised manner at the beginning of the Mus-haf or on its cover? Writing “ صدق الله العظيم “ at the end of the last verse of the Mus-haf and the end of a verse in an illustrative picture?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

The Board deems the following:

1- Writing the Mus-haf in a style other than the Ottoman is impermissible, except in educational books.

2- Adherence to one narration as regards the number of Quranic verses for there are specialized people in this field, who have acknowledged writing the Mus-haf and have also provided numbers at the end of verses in accordance with their preponderant opinion in that regard. Nonetheless, there is no harm in circulating a Mus-haf where the numbers of verses differ from that which is mentioned above, based on other narrations so long as the text is identical with the rest of the Mus-haf.

3- As regards writing " الله-محمد " : The Board doesn`t recommend doing so; however, it doesn`t have any objection as regards circulating Mus-hafs that already have them.

4- As regards writing “ صدق الله العظيم “ at the end of the last verse of the Mus-haf: The Board doesn`t recommend such a thing; however, it doesn`t object to circulating a Mus-haf in which this phrase is written after the chapter “ An-Naass “ , and in a pattern different from that used in the Mus-haf. As regards writing “ صدق الله العظيم “ at the end of illustrative pictures made by calligraphists to be hanged inside houses, there is no harm in that, provided that this phrase doesn`t give the impression that it is a part of the Quranic verse itself. And Allah Knows Best.

Iftaa` Board
Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Dr. Nooh Al-Qodaat
Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi
Dr. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Mahmood Al-Sartawi
Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi
Sheikh Mahmood Shwayaat
Sheikh Ratib Az-zahir

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on one who vows to fast a specific or non-specific year? Are the two Eids, the days of Tashreeq, Ramadan, and the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding included in them? And do these days break the consecutiveness if it was intended?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If someone makes a vow (Nadr) to fast a specific, designated year, this vow does not include the days of Eid, the days of Tashreeq (the three days following Eid al-Adha), Ramadan, or the days of menstruation (Hayd) and postnatal bleeding (Nifas). Furthermore, there is no requirement to make up (Qada) these specific days.
 
However, if someone vows to fast a year that is not specifically designated (i.e., any twelve-month period) and stipulates that the fasting must be consecutive, they are bound by that condition. They must not fast on the days of Eid, during Ramadan, or during menstruation, but they are required to make up these days afterward—with the exception of the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, which do not need to be made up.
 
It is stated in Hashiyat al-Bajuri ‘ala Sharh Ibn Qasim ({Vol.2/P.606): 'If one vows to fast a specific year, the Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, and days of menstruation or postnatal bleeding are not included. This is because Ramadan does not accept any fast other than its own, and the others do not accept fasting at all. Therefore, they do not enter into the vow, and no makeup is required for them because they are legally excluded—contrary to Al-Rafi’i regarding menstruation and postnatal bleeding.
 
If one vows to fast a non-designated year: if they stipulated consecutiveness (Tatuabu’) in their vow, they must fulfill it; otherwise, they are not bound to it. Consecutiveness is not broken by the days that do not enter into the specific year vow (Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, menstruation, and postnatal bleeding). However, one must make up the days missed—excluding the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding—immediately following the end of the year. As for the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, it is not made up, contrary to Ibn al-Rif’ah, who argued that it must be made up just like Ramadan.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Should missed Sunnah prayer be made up?

Making up missed voluntary acts of worship is from Sunnah.

What is the waiting period ('Iddah) for a woman whose husband has passed away, and what is the ruling on her wearing gold?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The waiting period ('Iddah) for a woman whose husband has passed away is four months and ten days for one who is not pregnant. As for a pregnant woman, her waiting period lasts until she gives birth. It is obligatory for her to remain in the marital home, only leaving for a necessity. During this time, it is prohibited (Haram) to display any form of adornment on the body or clothing; this includes wearing kohl, gold, all types of perfume, and dyeing the hair. Likewise, it is prohibited to receive a direct marriage proposal or to marry during this period.
 
It was narrated by Umm 'Atiyyah that the Prophet ﷺ said: 'We were forbidden to mourn for a deceased person for more than three days, except for a husband, for whom the mourning period is four months and ten days. During this time, we were not to use kohl, nor wear perfume, nor wear dyed clothing except for garments made of 'Asb (coarsely dyed yarn). We were, however, granted a concession at the time of purification—when one of us bathed following her menses—to use a small amount of Kust (costus) or Azfar (fragrant substances). We were also forbidden from following funeral processions.' (Narrated by Al-Bukhari). And Allah the Exalted knows best."

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.