Is a person who is in a state of Janabah (major ritual impurity due to having a marital intercourse, ejaculation, menstruation, and post-delivery impurities) sinful if he/she goes about his/her daily life activities in that state i.e. without making Ghusl (ritual bath)?
It goes without saying that a Muslim should always be in a state of ritual purity so as to be able to perform prayers and recite Quran. It is from Sunnah (Prophetic tradition) that a Muslim hastens to make Ghusl from Janabah, but he/she is not sinful in case he/she delayed that provided that he/she doesn`t miss prayers. However, it is permissible for him/her to go about their daily activities while in a state of Janabah, but had better bathe in order not to miss any prayer.
Is a woman`s voice 'Awrah even when praising the Prophet (PBUH) via satellite channels?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The Sharia term 'Awrah has two meanings:-
First: `Awrah that invalidates prayer when uncovered, and in this sense a woman`s voice isn`t considered `awrah. Second: `Awrah that causes men to be tempted by women and vice versa. Moreover, if a woman`s voice is soft or alluring, then it is forbidden for her to speak deliberately before strange men. This is because Almighty Allah Says (What means): "O ye wives of the Prophet! Ye are not like any other women. If ye keep your duty (to Allah), then be not soft of speech, lest he in whose heart is a disease aspire (to you), but utter customary speech." [Al-Ahzab/32]. However, a man should avoid listening whatever incites his desires. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is supplicating in Qunoot, at times of affliction, during obligatory and voluntary prayer a Sunnah, and should it be done before Rukoo` (bowing), or after it?
At times of affliction, it is a Sunnah that Muslims supplicate in Qunoot after the final Rukoo` of each obligatory, or voluntary prayer as individuals, or in congregation.
During Ramadan, a man had sexual intercourse with his wife. What is the expiation for that? And is he permitted to pay the expiation?
If a man has intercourse with his wife during the daytime in Ramadan, he must make up for that day and offer expiation. The expiation is fasting for two consecutive months. If he is unable to do so, he must feed sixty needy people. And Allah Knows Best.
