Is it permissible for a woman whose menses exceeded (15) days to pray, fast and do what was prohibited on her to do during the latter period?
If the menses exceeded 15 days then it is deemed menstruation, and in this case she is obliged to pray and fast and to do what was impermissible for her to do during the latter period. In addition, she is obliged to make an ablution for each obligatory prayer after it's due time and making sure that impuity is removed. Finally, your menstruation period is over (Questioner) simlar to your menstruation in the previos month.
During a flight from Amman to the UAE, while we were flying over Saudi Arabia, the captain announced that it was time to break our fast, coinciding with the exact time of sunset. After I had broken my fast with my first date, the captain apologized for the earlier announcement and clarified that the correct time would be in 20 minutes. Am I required to continue fasting on that day?
Whosoever break his fast at teh very first announcement to make up the missed day of Ramadan, since Allah, The Most Exalted, Said (What means): "then complete your fast Till the night appears" [Al-Baqara/187]. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah after her husband`s death to sit with her daughter`s suitor, although their marriage contract hasn`t been concluded yet?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
A suitor who hasn`t concluded the marriage contract isn`t a Mahram*, so he must be treated as such. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* The period a woman must observe after the death of her husband or after a divorce, during which she may not marry another man.
* In Islam, a mahram is a member of one's family with whom marriage would be considered haram, concealment purdah, or concealment of the body with hijab, is not obligatory; and with whom, if he is an adult male, she may be escorted during a journey, although an escort may not be obligatory.
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
