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Announcement of the Passing of the Esteemed Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 28-08-2023

Announcement of the Passing of the Esteemed Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh

 

 

The General Iftaa Department, represented by His Eminence the Grand Mufti Sheikh Abdulkarim Al-Khasawneh, and His Excellency the Secretary-General Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalaileh, along with the esteemed Muftis, researchers, and administrators, mourn the passing of the honorable Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh, the Mufti of Ajloun Governorate. They extend their deepest condolences to the Khatatbeh clan in general and to the family of the deceased in particular. They pray to Allah Almighty to replace the deceased with a better abode than his, a better family than his, better neighbors than his, and to grant him a place in His spacious gardens.

 

 

 

Indeed, to Allah we belong and to Him we shall return.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible to offer condolences to a non-Muslim?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is permissible to offer condolences (Ta'ziyah) to a non-Muslim upon the death of their relatives. This constitutes a form of benevolent treatment (Birr) that we have been commanded to observe. Allah Almighty states {what means}: "Allah does not forbid you from those who do not fight you because of religion and do not expel you from your homes—from being righteous toward them and acting justly toward them. Indeed, Allah loves those who act justly." (Surah Al-Mumtahinah, 60:8). And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a young man and a young woman to enter into a covenant as a married couple without having a true seclusion (Khalwah) until their marriage contract is officially concluded?

The relation which isn`t based on a marriage contract is forbidden, and entering into a covenant as a married couple is unaccounted for and is from the evil suggestions of the devil.

Is it permissible for a husband to stop his wife from visiting her family?

A husband shouldn`t stop his wife from visiting her family, and it is disliked for him to do so because such an act makes them harbor feelings of hatred against him.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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