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Announcement of the Passing of the Esteemed Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 28-08-2023

Announcement of the Passing of the Esteemed Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh

 

 

The General Iftaa Department, represented by His Eminence the Grand Mufti Sheikh Abdulkarim Al-Khasawneh, and His Excellency the Secretary-General Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalaileh, along with the esteemed Muftis, researchers, and administrators, mourn the passing of the honorable Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh, the Mufti of Ajloun Governorate. They extend their deepest condolences to the Khatatbeh clan in general and to the family of the deceased in particular. They pray to Allah Almighty to replace the deceased with a better abode than his, a better family than his, better neighbors than his, and to grant him a place in His spacious gardens.

 

 

 

Indeed, to Allah we belong and to Him we shall return.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What advice do you have for those who spend their nights and days of Ramadan watching TV?

Time is too precious to be wasted on entertainment, let alone in the blessed month of Ramadan, where a Muslim should strive for reward and forgiveness.

How does the person praying  perform the prostration (Sujud)?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is an act of Sunnah for the person praying to descend for prostration (Sujud) by placing their knees first, then placing their hands on the ground, and then placing their nose and forehead simultaneously. It is obligatory that the toes of the feet be on the ground, directed towards the Qibla. And Allah the Exalted knows best.