What are the categories of the livestock permissible for Udhiyah?
In the Name of Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
An Udhiyah (sacrificial offering) is only valid if it is selected from Al-An'am (livestock), which includes: camels, cattle, and sheep or goats—whether male or female, and even if castrated. Allah Almighty says {what means}: "And for all religion We have appointed a rite [of sacrifice] that they may mention the name of Allah over what He has provided for them of [sacrificial] livestock." (Al-Hajj/ 34)
In terms of preference, camels are considered the best choice, followed by cattle, then sheep, and finally goats.
A single sheep or goat is valid as a sacrifice on behalf of one person. However, a single camel or cow can be shared by up to seven people. This is based on the narration of Jabir (may Allah be pleased with him), who said: "In the year of Al-Hudaybiyah, we sacrificed along with the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) a camel on behalf of seven people, and a cow on behalf of seven people." (Narrated by Muslim)
(Note: The term "Badanah" used in the original Arabic text specifically refers to a camel in this context). And Allah the Almighty Knows Best.
If the bleeding ceases after 40 days following childbirth, but then returns intermittently during two days of fasting, what is the ruling?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Whenever the post-natal bleeding (Nifas) ceases and the woman is certain it will not return, she has become pure; therefore, she must perform the ritual bath (Ghusl) and resume praying and fasting. However, if the blood returns within fifteen days of its cessation and before sixty days have passed since the delivery, the ruling of Nifas applies once again. Consequently, any fasting or prayer performed during that interval of purity is rendered invalid; she must make up for the missed fasts of those days, but she is not required to make up for the prayers. And Allah the Exalted knows best.
Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?
A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
