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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No. (276): "The Amount of Zakat-ul-Fitr for the Year 1440 "

Date Added : 07-05-2019

Resolution No. (276)(10/2019): "The Amount of Zakat-ul-Fitr for the Year 1440 "

Date: 29/Sha`baan/1440 AH, corresponding to 5/5/2019 AD.

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

On the above date, the Board reviewed the amount of Zakat-ul-Fitr for the year (1440 AH), corresponding to (5/5/2019), and after deliberations it decided the following:

Zakat-ul-Fitr is a religious obligation and a manifestation of social solidarity which characterizes our tolerant Sharia; particularly in the blessed month of Ramadan; the month of good deeds and kindness. Therefore, it is an obligation on every Muslim who owns extra provisions beyond his need as well as the need of everyone in his family on the day and night of Ed-ul-Fitr. In other words, one father should pay for himself and for whom he supports, even for his baby who is born before the sunset of the last day of Ramadan as well as his poor parents whom he supports.

Ibn `Umar narrated: "Allah's Messenger (PBUH) made it incumbent on all the slave or free Muslims, male or female, to pay one Sa' of dates or barley as Zakat-ul-Fitr." {Related by Bukhari}.

Abu Sa'id Al-Khudri (RAA) narrated: “We used to offer it (Zakat-ul-fitr) during the lifetime of the Prophet as one sa’ of food or one sa' of dates, or one sa' of barley or one sa' of raisins’’ {Agreed upon}.

Therefore, the amount of Zakat-ul-Fitr is one Sa` of food. {Sa` equals (2.5 Kgs.)}. In the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, the common food is wheat. Therefore, Zakat-ul-Fitr is (2.5 Kgs.) of wheat on every person. It is also permissible to give one Sa` of rice since it is common food. Moreover, it is permissible to give the value of this amount in cash.

The Board estimates the value of the Sa` from the common food in Jordan as (1800 F.), and whoever wishes to pay more shall have a greater reward from Allah, The Almighty.

The preferred time for giving Zakat-ul-Fitr is between the sunset of the last day of Ramadan and the E`ed prayer. It is also permissible to give it from the beginning of Ramadan.

Nowadays, it is the duty of every Muslim to observe this ritual (Zakat-ul-Fitr) for it purifies the soul from any indecent acts. Therefore, it must be given on behalf of the child, who isn`t obliged to fast, as well as the sick who is unable to fast. Ibn ’Abbas (May Allah be pleased with him) narrated: "The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) enjoined Zakat-ul-fitr on the one who fasts (i.e. fasted during the month of Ramadan) to purify him from any indecent act or speech and to provide food for the needy “ {Abu Dawood}. Giving it to the poor makes them self-sufficient on the day of E`ed. Therefore, a Muslim should give it willingly and kindly.

The Board estimates the ransom (Saum Fidyah) for breaking fast by those unable to fast due to old age or sickness (people exempted from fasting), as 1 JD at the minimum for each missed day, and whoever wishes to give more shall receive a greater reward from Allah, The Almighty, Knows Best.

We pray that Allah, The Almighty, Accepts our acts of devotion and Erases our sins. And Allah the Almighty Knows Best.

 

Chairperson: Dr. Mohammad al-Khalayleh, Grand Mufti of Jordan

Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh/ Member 

 Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat/ Member

Dr. Moh. Khair Al-Esa/ Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijawi/ Member          

 Judge Khalid Woraikat/ Member

Dr. Mohammad al-Zou`bi/ Member  

Dr. Rashaad al-Kelani/Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for a woman to wear underwear while performing Umrah?

Yes, it is permissible for a woman to wear underwear while performing Umrah. This is because she should keep her regular clothes that cover all her body while being in a state of Ihram (ritual consecration) for Hajj, or Umrah. However, she should uncover her face and hands, but it is permissible for her to let her head-covering garment drape from her head down over her face when non-Mahram (i.e., marriageable) men pass by her. And Allah Knows Best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

A pregnant woman has iron deficiency. When she showers, she becomes very tired and feels cold. What is the ruling on tayammum in this situation?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
One should not resort to tayammum (dry ablution) as a substitute for the obligatory ghusl (ritual bathing) so long as it remains possible to use water — for example, by heating the water, warming the place where the bathing takes place, or taking other similar precautions. However, if such measures prove ineffective, or are simply not possible to carry out, and performing ghusl [with cold water] would result in severe harm, then tayammum becomes permissible in that case, due to genuine inability to use water on account of the harm that would result, as described in the question. That said, she must make up (qaḍā') the prayers she performed using this tayammum.
It is stated in Bushrā al-Karīm: "One should not perform tayammum on account of cold unless warming the limbs fails to remove the aforementioned harm, and no means are available to heat the water — such as a vessel, firewood, or fire — and one fears [that using cold water would result in] any of the harms mentioned earlier in the discussion on illness: danger to life, loss of function in a limb, the onset or worsening of an illness, delayed recovery, or the [visible bodily] blemish mentioned in that discussion on illness. In such a case, tayammum becomes permissible due to the harm involved, but the prayer must still be made up afterward (qaḍā'). If, however, warming the body proves effective, or the means to heat the water are available, or none of the aforementioned harms are feared — then tayammum is not permissible, even if using the water causes some degree of discomfort or pain, since mere discomfort alone does not permit resorting to tayammum." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is "Bismillāhir-Raḥmānir-Raḥīm" a verse (āyah) of Sūrat al-Fātiḥah?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The basmalah ("Bismillāhir-Raḥmānir-Raḥīm") is, without question, a verse (āyah) of the Noble Qur'an, and according to the Shāfi‘ī school, it constitutes a verse of Sūrat al-Fātiḥah itself. Al-Fātiḥah is a pillar of the prayer, and it consists of seven verses, of which the basmalah is one. The prayer is not valid without reciting it, nor if any of the Fātiḥah's verses, letters, or shaddahs (consonant doublings) are omitted or altered.
It is stated in Bushrā al-Karīm (Vol.1/p.202), from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "The basmalah is a complete verse of it [i.e., of al-Fātiḥah] in practice — and it suffices, for this to be established, that there be strong probability (ẓann), especially given that this has come very close to certainty (yaqīn), due to the consensus (ijmā‘) of the Companions on its inclusion in the muṣ-ḥaf [the written text of the Qur'an] in its script, despite their extreme diligence in excluding from it anything that did not genuinely belong to it — to the point that they even [carefully regulated] its diacritical dots and vowel markings." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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