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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(252): "Mother Authorizing Hospital to Treat Child"

Date Added : 03-04-2018

Resolution No.(252)(5/2018) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Mother Authorizing Hospital to Treat Child"

Date: 6/Jumada Al-Akhirah/1439 AH, corresponding to 22/2/2018.

 

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

During its third session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question sent from Dr. Ali Mish`al and Dr. Mou`min Al-Hadidi, and it read as follows:

How legal is it for a mother to authorize hospital to treat her minors or mentally disabled children? Is that an exclusive right of the father and male blood relatives who can act on his behalf? Or is it permissible for the mother to make the authorization, knowing that, in some cases, she commits herself to covering the expenses?

 

After deliberating, the Board decided what follows:

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

Islamic Law has given incompetent persons-the child, the mad and the like-the right to receive all types of care, such as that pertaining to health and medical treatment. It has made this the responsibility of the guardian, and gave the father the right to guardianship, at first, in order to put its requirements in order. However, no matter who the guardian may be, his/her actions should be in the best interest of those under his/her guardianship when it comes to their material rights, expenses and else. For example, the right to receive the best and most suitable medical care. Al-Imam Ar-Ramli (May Allah have mercy on his soul) said: "It is incumbent upon the guardian-father or else- to act in the best interest of those under his guardianship, because Allah, The Almighty, Said (What means): "And approach not the wealth of the orphan save with that which is better" {Al-An`am, 152}. He, The Exalted, also Said (What means): "And if ye mingle your affairs with theirs, then (they are) your brothers. Allah knoweth him who spoileth from him who improveth." {Al-Baqarah, 220}." {Moghni Al-Mohtajj}.

 

An example on this care is providing the child and other incompetent persons with medical treatment without delay so as to spare them any harm. Therefore, if it was difficult for the hospital to obtain an authorization from the father or the grandfather, then it is permissible to obtain it from the mother. This is based on the Sharia maxim {Which means}: "What we can`t do, doesn`t annul what we can do" In other words, since treating a patient is obligatory in all situations, so we don`t abstain from that because some guardians aren`t available; rather, some jurists have made all Muslims, in general, responsible for providing care to whoever doesn`t have a guardian. Therefore, it is imperative that the hospital acts in the best interest of the patients regardless of who the guardian may be, because every course of action that inflicts harm on the patient is prohibited. This is based on the Hadith in which the Messenger of Allah said: “There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm.” {Ibn Majah}.

 

In its resolution No.(10/18), the International Islamic Fiqh Academy permitted initiating medical treatment without securing the patient`s or guardian`s consent in the following situation: "The patient is in critical condition that necessitates immediate medical attention to save his/her life before his or his guardian`s consent could be obtained." In this case, sufficing with the mother`s permission should take precedence.

 

However, in non-urgent cases, laws and regulations-which should be legislated with utmost care-should be observed so as for the medical interest of the "Minor" to be fulfilled. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh, Member

Prof. Abdulnaser Abulbasal,  Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zou`bi/ Member

Dr. Wa`el Arabyat/ Member

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaaz/ Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

A person who has recently embraced Islam is afraid of undergoing circumcision (khitān) — what should he do?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
If this person would be harmed by undergoing circumcision, based on the assessment of a trustworthy physician, then he is not obligated to undergo it. However, if the matter is simply a fear of the procedure itself, then it may be postponed until he feels at ease and settled about it, provided this does not lead him to become averse to Islam — while still taking care to remove any impurity from the concealed area [beneath the foreskin]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the waiting period ('Iddah) for a woman whose husband has passed away, and what is the ruling on her wearing gold?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The waiting period ('Iddah) for a woman whose husband has passed away is four months and ten days for one who is not pregnant. As for a pregnant woman, her waiting period lasts until she gives birth. It is obligatory for her to remain in the marital home, only leaving for a necessity. During this time, it is prohibited (Haram) to display any form of adornment on the body or clothing; this includes wearing kohl, gold, all types of perfume, and dyeing the hair. Likewise, it is prohibited to receive a direct marriage proposal or to marry during this period.
 
It was narrated by Umm 'Atiyyah that the Prophet ﷺ said: 'We were forbidden to mourn for a deceased person for more than three days, except for a husband, for whom the mourning period is four months and ten days. During this time, we were not to use kohl, nor wear perfume, nor wear dyed clothing except for garments made of 'Asb (coarsely dyed yarn). We were, however, granted a concession at the time of purification—when one of us bathed following her menses—to use a small amount of Kust (costus) or Azfar (fragrant substances). We were also forbidden from following funeral processions.' (Narrated by Al-Bukhari). And Allah the Exalted knows best."

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is it permissible to pay the Zakah (obligatory charity) for settling the debt of a deceased relative?

It is impermissible to pay the Zakah for settling the debt of the deceased since Zakah is paid to eligible recipients who are alive. As for the debts of the deceased, they are to be settled from the estate before dividing it amongst the heirs, but if the deceased didn`t leave an estate, then it is desirable for his/her heirs to settle those debts if they can afford them. And Allah Knows Best.

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