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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No. (8): "Ruling on an Heir Inheriting the Person that he had Killed"

Date Added : 25-01-2018

 

Resolution No.(8) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

  "Ruling on an Heir Inheriting the Person that he had Killed"

Date: 6/4/1407AH, 7/12/1986 AD

 

Question: What is the ruling on an heir receiving a share from the one that he had killed for the motivation of inheritance?
Answer: Praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds.
The Board is of the view that the husband`s killing of his wife is unlawful, so it has decided that in this particular case, the killer doesn`t inherit the killed. In fact, this is the view of the Hanafite`s juristic school and it is effective in the Jordanian Civil Status Law. This is also the view of all juristic schools, which stipulate that a killer (an heir) is excluded from inheriting the killed in case of unlawful killing, whether it was intentional, or accidental. This is supported by what was narrated after the Prophet (PBUH) who said (What means): “An heir receives no inheritance from the person that he killed" ([1]). And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

 

([1]) Related by Abu Dawood in [Al-Sunn] - The Diyat Book/Organ's Diya Chapter. Hadith No.(4564) taken from the Narration of Amr Ibn Sho'aib who related from his father from their granfather. Al-Baihaqee commented in [AL-Sunn Al-Kobra] by saying: "The authentication of this Hadith is taken from other Hadithes" 

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Summarized Fatawaa

A young man who works for a conventional bank has proposed to me. Is it forbidden to marry him because he works there?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Since the Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: "When someone with whose religion and character you are satisfied asks your daughter in marriage, accede to his request. If you do not do so there will be temptation in the earth and extensive corruption."
Marrying such a person is permissible because he is a Muslim, and Allah may bless him with another job in which no usury/interest is involved. And Allah The Most Exalted Knows Best.

What is the ruling on Friday Ghusl (ritual bath)?

Friday Ghusl is a confirmed Sunna (Prophetic tradition) even if a person wasn`t in a state of Janbah (ritual impurity), or physically unclean. However, one who doesn`t make Ghusl on Friday isn`t sinful for the Prophet (PBUH) said: "It is good for a Muslim to make ablution for Friday prayer, but it is better to make Ghusul. [At-Tirmithi & Abu Dawood].

An Arab young man had an illegitimate sexual relationship with a Christian American while she was staying in one of the Arab countries. After she returned to America, she told him that she had doubts that she was impregnated by him. It is worth pointing that it is hard for him to get a visa to the USA. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Zina (Adultery and extramarital relations) is one of the grave sins that incur the wrath of Allah if the adulterer didn`t make immediate repentance. However, the child isn`t attributed to the adulterer. Rather, he/she is attributed to the woman who got pregnant by him and, according to Sharia, it isn`t considered a legitimate child of the adulterer. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Is washing the private part after urinating (Istinjaa`) a condition, and is it done with water and soap, or with water only?

Istinjaa` is obligatory for removing impurity, and it can be done with toilet paper, or a stone, or water. It is preferable to do Istinjaa` first with paper, or stone, or the like, then to wash the private part with water until making sure that the impurity has been removed. Using soap is not a condition, but there is no harm in doing so provided that it is washed off with water. It is also permissible to use either water, or paper if impurity is removed by any.

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