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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No. (211): "Transplanting an Ovum Between Co-Wives is Impermissible"

Date Added : 05-10-2015

Resolution No. (211) (12/2010), by The Board of Iftaa', Researches and Islamic Studies:​

"Transplanting an Ovum Between Co-Wives is Impermissible"

Date: 6/Rabie Al-Awwal/1436A.H, corresponding to 28/12/2014A.D 

 

Praise be to Allah; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his Family and Companions.

The Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies reviewed in its fourteenth session, Sunday (6/ Rabie Al-Awwal/1436), (28/12/2014), the question delivered by one of the physicians and reads as follows:

What is the ruling on transplanting a fertilized ovum, from an insemination process between a man and his first wife, in the uterus of his second wife. Are there different cases in this regard, and what are its repercussions in terms of lineage (Maternal), inheritance..etc. ?

After careful study and deliberation, the Board decided the following:

It is impermissible to transplant a fertilized ovum of one wife in the uterus of her co-wife because this entails religious {Islamic Law} and legal repercussions as regards determining the true mother; is she the one who contributed with the ovum, or the uterus?. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Head of the Iftaa` Board, The Grand Mufti of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Vice Head of the Iftaa` Board, Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member

Dr. Hayil Abdulhafeez/ Member

Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/ Member

Dr. Moh. Al-Qodah/ Member

Dr. Wasif  Al-Bakri/ Member

Dr. Abduln`nassir Abu Al Bass`al/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zou`bi/ Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

Is it permissible to slaughter one animal as a sacrifice and an Aqeeqah (the sheep slaughtered on the seventh day from the child`s birth)?

It is impermissible to do so since each of them is slaughtered for a different reason.

What is the ruling on the cessation of blood after (40) days from delivery, but later continued sporadically during two days of Ramadan?

Once postpartum bleeding (Nifas) ceases, and the woman is certain that it won`t reoccur, then she becomes ritually pure and so she is free to make Ghusl (purificatory bath), pray, and fast. If the bleeding reoccurs before fifteen days from its cessation, and before the end of (60) days after delivery, then the ruling on postpartum bleeding is effective, and her fasting and prayer are null and void, thus she must make up the fasting that she missed and not the prayer during those particular days.

What is the ruling on making up for missed fasting after the second half of Sha`ban (the month before Ramadhaan)?

One is obliged to make up for missed fasting before the start of next Ramadhaan, and regardless of offering it during the first, or the second half of Shab`an. This is because the prohibition mentioned in the Hadith is for offering absolute voluntary fasting in the second half of Sha`ban. And Allah Knows Best.

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