Dr. Zaid Ibrahim Al-Kilani Appointed as the Secretary-General of the General Iftaa` Department

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The Ifta’ Law number (60) of the year 2006, and the modifying Law number (4) of the year 2009 state that a Board is to be established in the Kingdom and called “Board of Iftaa’, Islamic Studies and Research,” and that the General Mufti (who is now Shaikh Abdel Kareem El-Khasawneh) is the Head of the Board. The following are members: ... Read More
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Iftaa' Department
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The Fatwa Department of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan was founded in 1921. Since its formation, it has relied upon Hanafi fatwas which were in use during the Ottoman era, and the Mufti has answered the questions of members of the public, whether they relate to worship or financial transactions or personal statutes, and it has assigned a mufti to each judge in cities both large and small. The judge seeks the mufti's assistance in solving social problems, just as the mufti refers to the judge matters which are not within the mufti's jurisdiction and which require evidence and witnesses....
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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on ablution if vaginal discharge is expelled, and is it impure?

If these discharges exit from the external genitalia (apparent part of the vagina), they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution. If they exit from the internal part, they are impure and do invalidate ablution. If it is uncertain whether they are from the internal or external part, they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution.

The apparent part is what becomes visible when sitting, and what the husband's penis reaches during intercourse is considered part of the apparent. The internal part is what is beyond that. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on wiping over socks?

It is not permissible to wipe over most common socks today because the conditions for wiping are not met. The concession was reported for wiping over leather socks (khuff) and socks (jowrab) with conditions: They must be thick, not allowing poured water to penetrate, enable one to walk in them, be worn while in a state of purity (from ablution), cover the entire foot up to the ankles (meaning covering the protruding ankle bones), and not be torn. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it incumbent on a husband to pay the alimony of his wife if she had left him and stayed at her parent`s without his permission?

When a wife leaves her house, and stays at her parent`s without asking her husband, she is considered a Nashiz (wife who refuses to abide by her husband’s orders), and so she doesn`t deserve an alimony.

Is the father a Mahram (Non-marriageable) to his son`s mother-in-law?

The father is a non-Mahram (Marriageable) to his son`s mother-in-law, so it is impermissible for them to look at each other, or to have a seclusion (Khalwah).

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Dr. Zaid Ibrahim Al-Kilani Appointed as the Secretary-General of the General Iftaa` Department

Author : The General Iftaa` Department

Date Added : 28-11-2023

Dr. Zaid Ibrahim Al-Kilani Appointed as the Secretary-General of the General Iftaa` Department

The Grand Mufti and the staff of the General Iftaa` Department extend their warmest congratulations to Dr. Zaid Ibrahim Al-Kilani on the occasion of the Cabinet's decision to appoint him as the Secretary-General of the General Iftaa` Department.

We ask Allah the Almighty for guidance and success to him and us.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

Is it a condition for the mosque where I‘tikaf is performed to hold Jumu‘ah prayers?

No, it is not a condition for the mosque where I‘tikaf is performed to have Jumu‘ah prayers. However, if a person vows to perform continuous I‘tikaf, and Jumu‘ah occurs within that period, then they must observe I‘tikaf in a mosque where Jumu‘ah is held so that they do not break their continuity by leaving for Friday prayer.

Is it permissible for a religious young Muslim woman to love a young man for Allah`s sakes?

Such love between the two sexes is from the devil`s evil suggestions, and a pure Muslim woman should beware of such a matter, and she shouldn`t mix with non-Mahrams (Marriageable ).

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.

It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]

It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.