About the Mistake Made by Taking the Fatwa on Serving Food during the Day Time of Ramadan out of its Context

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What is the ruling on using eye drops while fasting?

Eye drops do not break the fast, even if the taste reaches the throat, because the eye is not an open passage to the body cavity.

My father has debts and asked me to repay them years ago, and I promised him I would do so upon his death — is it permissible for me to go back on my promise given that I am unable to repay them, especially since he refuses to contribute to repayment on the grounds that the debt has become my responsibility by virtue of my promise?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.

The established principle is that a father's debt is to be repaid from his own wealth, if he possesses sufficient means. As for the promise made by the son to repay it on his father's behalf, fulfilling such a promise is strongly recommended, and breaking it is considerably disliked. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Fulfilling a promise is emphatically recommended, and breaking it is severely disliked. The evidences for this from the Qurʾān and the Sunnah are well known." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn,Vol. 2/P.278] Shaykh al-Islām Imām Zakariyyā al-Anṣārī, may Allah have mercy upon him, further states: "The reason fulfilling a promise is not obligatory and breaking it is not forbidden is that a promise is in the nature of a gift, and a gift does not become binding except upon receipt." [Asnā al-Maṭālib fī Sharḥ Rawḍ al-Ṭālib,Vol. 2/P.487]

Given that the son does not possess the financial means to fulfil his promise to his father, breaking this promise falls beyond his capacity — and Allah does not burden a soul beyond what it can bear. Since the father himself possesses sufficient wealth to settle his own debt, repayment must be made from his own funds. Should he pass away before doing so, the debt is to be settled from his estate. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on shaving the head of the newborn?

It is desirable to shave the head of the newborn on the seventh day from delivery, and the weight of his/her hair is given in gold , or silver as charity.

Is it permissible for the wife to give the Zakah (obligatory charity) of her money to her poor husband?

Yes, it is permissible for the wife to give from the Zakah of her money to her poor husband. And Allah Knows Best.

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About the Mistake Made by Taking the Fatwa on Serving Food during the Day Time of Ramadan out of its Context

Author : The General Iftaa` Department

Date Added : 11-06-2023

About the Mistake Made by Taking the Fatwa on Serving Food during the Day Time of Ramadan out of its Context

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

The General Iftaa` Department attracts the attention of all its followers to the need to take the context and subject of the Fatwa into consideration, not to remove it out of its circumstance, and not to generalize its intended meanings from near or far. This pertains, in particular, to the answers forwarded to the asker through his/her personal email since they aren`t characterized as absolute and general. Rather, they address a certain case and circumstance.

The General Iftaa Department had answered one of the questioners about a fasting person making “Breakfast, lunch or coffee for a non-fasting person… and he is forced to do so because his manager orders him to do that.” This is according to the text of the question.

The answer was that helping in such sin is forbidden because a Muslim wouldn`t help a Muslim in not observing fast during daytime of Ramadan unless that Muslim had a lawful excuse such as illness, travel and the like.

The answer given by the Department read as follows: "You aren`t allowed to serve coffee and tea during the day time of Ramadan to someone who disobeys Allah by violating the sanctity of this sacred month without a valid excuse. This is because what you are doing is helping in sin while Almighty Allah says {What means}: "Help ye one another in righteousness and piety, but help ye not one another in sin and rancour: fear Allah. for Allah is strict in punishment." {Al-Ma`idah, 2}.

However, some people misunderstood this Fatwa and said that the Department bans the excused and non-Muslims from eating during the daytime of Ramadan!

Accordingly, it was imperative that We clarify the fact of the matter, so We said that the banning pertains to the Muslims who broke fast without a valid excuse and didn`t impose any difficulty on people with excuses. This is in addition to not transgressing against the special nature of other faiths nor addressing non-Muslims.

The fact that Fatwa is a responsibility obliges everyone to observe honesty in delivering Fatwa, prudence, and accuracy of expression, and if there is a confusion or a problem, the Iftaa` Department is always ready to make things clear. Allah the Almighty says {What means}: " And pursue not that of which thou hast no knowledge; for every act of hearing, or of seeing or of (feeling in) the heart will be enquired into (on the Day of Reckoning)." {Al-Isra`, 36}. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for a woman to wear underwear while performing Umrah?

Yes, it is permissible for a woman to wear underwear while performing Umrah. This is because she should keep her regular clothes that cover all her body while being in a state of Ihram (ritual consecration) for Hajj, or Umrah. However, she should uncover her face and hands, but it is permissible for her to let her head-covering garment drape from her head down over her face when non-Mahram (i.e., marriageable) men pass by her. And Allah Knows Best.

Is "Bismillāhir-Raḥmānir-Raḥīm" a verse (āyah) of Sūrat al-Fātiḥah?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.

The basmalah ("Bismillāhir-Raḥmānir-Raḥīm") is, without question, a verse (āyah) of the Noble Qur'an, and according to the Shāfi‘ī school, it constitutes a verse of Sūrat al-Fātiḥah itself. Al-Fātiḥah is a pillar of the prayer, and it consists of seven verses, of which the basmalah is one. The prayer is not valid without reciting it, nor if any of the Fātiḥah's verses, letters, or shaddahs (consonant doublings) are omitted or altered.

It is stated in Bushrā al-Karīm (Vol.1/p.202), from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "The basmalah is a complete verse of it [i.e., of al-Fātiḥah] in practice — and it suffices, for this to be established, that there be strong probability (ẓann), especially given that this has come very close to certainty (yaqīn), due to the consensus (ijmā‘) of the Companions on its inclusion in the muṣ-ḥaf [the written text of the Qur'an] in its script, despite their extreme diligence in excluding from it anything that did not genuinely belong to it — to the point that they even [carefully regulated] its diacritical dots and vowel markings." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the meaning of the word aqiqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

The 'aqīqah in its linguistic sense refers to the hair upon the head of a newborn at the time of birth.

In its Sharī'ah sense, it refers to the livestock that is slaughtered on behalf of a newborn child.

And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on one who died owing debts and left no wealth? Is it obligatory upon the heirs to settle these debts?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

The general rule is that if a person dies owing rights to other people, such as debts, these are settled from his estate, if he left any wealth, before the estate is divided. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said: “The believer's soul is suspended by his debt until it is settled for him.” Graded ḥasan by al-Tirmidhī. Repayment of debts takes precedence over the heirs’ right to inheritance.

If the deceased left no estate, or left wealth that was insufficient to cover his debts, it is not obligatory for the heirs to pay from their own wealth, but it is recommended for them to do so, because the deceased’s dhimmah (legal liability) remains occupied by the debt. It is reported in some narrations that he remains held in suspension until his debt is paid, and it is not part of filial righteousness for a child to leave his father’s dhimmah burdened with debt.

All of the children may contribute to settling the debt on behalf of their father and cooperate in doing so, even in installments, according to their ability. And Allah Almighty knows best.