عربي
Home


Articles

Articles

About the Mistake Made by Taking the Fatwa on Serving Food during the Day Time of Ramadan out of its Context
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 11-06-2023

About the Mistake Made by Taking the Fatwa on Serving Food during the Day Time of Ramadan out of its Context

 

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

The General Iftaa` Department attracts the attention of all its followers to the need to take the context and subject of the Fatwa into consideration, not to remove it out of its circumstance, and not to generalize its intended meanings from near or far. This pertains, in particular, to the answers forwarded to the asker through his/her personal email since they aren`t characterized as absolute and general. Rather, they address a certain case and circumstance.

 

The General Iftaa Department had answered one of the questioners about a fasting person making “Breakfast, lunch or coffee for a non-fasting person… and he is forced to do so because his manager orders him to do that.” This is according to the text of the question.

 

The answer was that helping in such sin is forbidden because a Muslim wouldn`t help a Muslim in not observing fast during daytime of Ramadan unless that Muslim had a lawful excuse such as illness, travel and the like.

 

The answer given by the Department read as follows: "You aren`t allowed to serve coffee and tea during the day time of Ramadan to someone who disobeys Allah by violating the sanctity of this sacred month without a valid excuse. This is because what you are doing is helping in sin while Almighty Allah says {What means}: "Help ye one another in righteousness and piety, but help ye not one another in sin and rancour: fear Allah. for Allah is strict in punishment." {Al-Ma`idah, 2}.

 

However, some people misunderstood this Fatwa and said that the Department bans the excused and non-Muslims from eating during the daytime of Ramadan!

 

Accordingly, it was imperative that We clarify the fact of the matter, so We said that the banning pertains to the Muslims who broke fast without a valid excuse and didn`t impose any difficulty on people with excuses. This is in addition to not transgressing against the special nature of other faiths nor addressing non-Muslims.

 

The fact that Fatwa is a responsibility obliges everyone to observe honesty in delivering Fatwa, prudence, and accuracy of expression, and if there is a confusion or a problem, the Iftaa` Department is always ready to make things clear. Allah the Almighty says {What means}: " And pursue not that of which thou hast no knowledge; for every act of hearing, or of seeing or of (feeling in) the heart will be enquired into (on the Day of Reckoning)." {Al-Isra`, 36}. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Article Number [ Previous | Next ]

Read for Author




Comments


Captcha


Warning: this window is not dedicated to receive religious questions, but to comment on topics published for the benefit of the site administrators—and not for publication. We are pleased to receive religious questions in the section "Send Your Question". So we apologize to readers for not answering any questions through this window of "Comments" for the sake of work organization. Thank you.




Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

What is the ruling on a person in a state of major impurity (junub) or a menstruating woman (ha'id) reciting the Quran from memory?

It is not permissible for a menstruating woman, a postpartum woman, or a person in a state of major impurity to recite anything from the Quran, whether from memory, from the Quran, from a phone, or a computer. It is also not permissible for them to touch the Quran, based on what was reported from Ali bin Abi Talib that the Prophet (peace be upon him) was not prevented from anything regarding the Quran except major impurity (janabah). (Reported by al-Tirmidhi who said it is a hasan sahih hadith). Menstruation and postpartum bleeding are analogous to major impurity (janabah) as they are all major impurities (hadath akbar).
For those mentioned, it is permissible to mention Allah and supplicate even with verses from the Quran, provided they do not intend them as recitation of the Quran, but intend them as remembrance (dhikr) or supplication (du'a). And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for the children of a deceased father to settle his debt from the Zakah (obligatory charity) money due on them?

It is impermissible to use the Zakah of one`s money for settling the debts of the deceased. However, children should settle the debts of their deceased parents out of filial piety. And Allah Knows Best.

See More