What is the ruling on the follower (*maʾmūm*) reciting Sūrat al-Fātiḥah behind the imam?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
In our school of Islamic thought, the Shāfiʿī school, reciting al-Fātiḥah is obligatory in every rakʿah of the prayer for the imam, the follower (maʾmūm), and the one praying individually (munfarid), because it is one of the pillars (arkān) of the prayer. Whoever does not perform it, his prayer is invalid, whether the prayer is silent (sirriyyah) or audible (jahriyyah), based on the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him): “The prayer of the one who does not recite the Opening of the Book (Fātiḥat al-Kitāb) is invalid.” Agreed upon.
It is stated in ʿUmdat al-Sālik, one of the books of the Shāfiʿī school: “He recites al-Fātiḥah in every rakʿah, whether he is the imam, the follower, or the individual worshipper.”
The jurists of the other schools hold a different opinion, which was previously explained in Fatwa no. (
3169); please refer to it. And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on the "wheel of fortune"?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
If entry into the contest is free of charge, meaning it is not paid for, and a company offers it to a customer so that he may enter a prize draw, then there is no objection or sin in it. In that case, it is considered a gift from the merchant. This is what appears in Iftaa Board Resolution No.
3/2010. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
Is it permissible for a woman to wear underwear while performing Umrah?
Yes, it is permissible for a woman to wear underwear while performing Umrah. This is because she should keep her regular clothes that cover all her body while being in a state of Ihram (ritual consecration) for Hajj, or Umrah. However, she should uncover her face and hands, but it is permissible for her to let her head-covering garment drape from her head down over her face when non-Mahram (i.e., marriageable) men pass by her. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No.
2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.