Which holds greater virtue: The Udhiyah (Sacrificial Offering) or giving its value in Charity (Sadaqah)?
In the Name of Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Offering an Udhiyah (sacrificial offering) holds greater virtue than donating its monetary value to the poor and needy. This is because the sacrifice is a prominent, manifest ritual among the sacred symbols of Islam. Allah Almighty says: "That [is so]. And whoever honors the symbols of Allah - indeed, it is from the piety of hearts." (Al-Hajj: 32)
Furthermore, there are numerous authentic and explicit Hadiths highlighting its immense reward. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) consistently offered this sacrifice, as did the Righteous Caliphs after him. And Allah the Almighty Knows Best.
What is the ruling on a person who insists on praying in a specific spot and becomes angry if someone else prays there?
ruling on a person who persists in praying in a specific spot and becomes angry if someone else occupies it
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Our Master the Prophet ﷺ forbade a man from habitually claiming a specific spot in the mosque as a camel claims its place (to sit); scholars consider this to be among the disliked matters (Makruhat). It is therefore obligatory to advise this individual that whoever arrives at a spot first has the most right to it. And Allah the Exalted knows best.
If a woman becomes pure from menstruation before the Fajr Adhan in Ramadan, is she required to fast?
If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) before the Fajr Adhan, she must fast, as the impediment preventing her from fasting has been removed. The Sharia maxim in this regard states: "When the impediment is removed, the obligation returns."
She should then make the intention to fast before Fajr and perform ghusl (ritual purification) for prayer, whether before or after Fajr.
What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No.
2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
