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Islamic Ruling on Participating in Municipal Elections
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 13-03-2023

Islamic Ruling on Participating in Municipal Elections

 

Municipal elections are a legitimate means of expressing opinion freely and sincerely and a process of consultation that is in harmony with the provisions of Sharia. It aims to select municipal councils in all governorates to be in charge of running the affairs of cities and villages in terms of cleanliness, maintenance and organization on scientific and technical grounds to set them apart from other cities and villages.

Therefore, the responsibility of municipal councils is great one and can`t be shouldered save by those who are competent, capable, have the desire to establish justice, truth and kindness. This is in addition to being acquainted with that which lies in the benefit of the nation and citizens, and promotes the values of loyalty and belongingness amongst the citizens. Allah the Almighty says on the tongue of Yousef: "(Joseph) said: "Set me over the storehouses of the land: I will indeed guard them, as one that knows (their importance)." {Yousef, 55}.

One who is competent and honest in doing things deserves to be voted for Allah The Almighty Says on the tongue of Prophet Shu`aib (PBUH) (What means): "Said one of the (damsels): "O my (dear) father! engage him on wages: truly the best of men for thee to employ is the (man) who is strong and trusty"...." {Al-Qasas, 26}.

It is the duty of every citizen to elect the best, the fittest and the competent, and the Muslim should run his affairs of this life and the next in the right manner, as required by Almighty Allah. Since a Muslim`s witness will be written down, he/she should choose the most competent nominee as he/she will be held to account for that on the Day of Judgment. Allah Says {What means}:  "Their evidence will be recorded, and they will be called to account!" {Al-Zukhruf/19}.

It is no secret that the irregularities within the electoral process in terms of buying or forging votes are prohibited by Sharia.

We call on all Jordanians to unite in order to make the electoral process a success and to elect the most competent, as this has a direct and tangible impact on all citizens. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is an elderly or chronically ill person required to pay additional fidyah if they delay it beyond the first year?

An elderly person or someone permanently unable to fast must pay fidyah by feeding one needy person for each missed day.
However, if they delay paying fidyah beyond the first year, no additional fidyah is required.
This differs from someone who delays making up missed Ramadan fasts (qada) without a valid excuse until the next Ramadan begins—such a person is required to pay an additional fidyah for the delay.

Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on the money saved for marriage?

Zakah is due on the money saved for marriage if it reached the Nissab (minimum amount liable for Zakah), and a whole lunar year had lapsed over possessing it.

How is the niṣāb (minimum threshold) of gold calculated when one owns gold of multiple different karats?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh is obligatory on cash and on gold designated for saving or for trade, provided the total reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah), and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The niṣāb is (85) grams of 24-karat gold; for 21-karat gold, the niṣāb equals (97) grams; and for 18-karat gold, it equals (113) grams.
If one owns gold of multiple different karats, the person paying zakāh should calculate the monetary value of all the gold he owns, combining these values together to determine whether the total reaches the niṣāb. He then pays zakāh on this combined monetary value, once the total reaches the niṣāb. The relied-upon position is to calculate the zakāh based on the buying price [i.e., the price the gold merchant would pay the owner to purchase the gold from him] on the day the zakāh obligation is due. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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