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Islamic Ruling on Participating in Municipal Elections
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 13-03-2023

Islamic Ruling on Participating in Municipal Elections

 

Municipal elections are a legitimate means of expressing opinion freely and sincerely and a process of consultation that is in harmony with the provisions of Sharia. It aims to select municipal councils in all governorates to be in charge of running the affairs of cities and villages in terms of cleanliness, maintenance and organization on scientific and technical grounds to set them apart from other cities and villages.

Therefore, the responsibility of municipal councils is great one and can`t be shouldered save by those who are competent, capable, have the desire to establish justice, truth and kindness. This is in addition to being acquainted with that which lies in the benefit of the nation and citizens, and promotes the values of loyalty and belongingness amongst the citizens. Allah the Almighty says on the tongue of Yousef: "(Joseph) said: "Set me over the storehouses of the land: I will indeed guard them, as one that knows (their importance)." {Yousef, 55}.

One who is competent and honest in doing things deserves to be voted for Allah The Almighty Says on the tongue of Prophet Shu`aib (PBUH) (What means): "Said one of the (damsels): "O my (dear) father! engage him on wages: truly the best of men for thee to employ is the (man) who is strong and trusty"...." {Al-Qasas, 26}.

It is the duty of every citizen to elect the best, the fittest and the competent, and the Muslim should run his affairs of this life and the next in the right manner, as required by Almighty Allah. Since a Muslim`s witness will be written down, he/she should choose the most competent nominee as he/she will be held to account for that on the Day of Judgment. Allah Says {What means}:  "Their evidence will be recorded, and they will be called to account!" {Al-Zukhruf/19}.

It is no secret that the irregularities within the electoral process in terms of buying or forging votes are prohibited by Sharia.

We call on all Jordanians to unite in order to make the electoral process a success and to elect the most competent, as this has a direct and tangible impact on all citizens. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

If a woman becomes pure from menstruation before the Fajr Adhan in Ramadan, is she required to fast?

If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) before the Fajr Adhan, she must fast, as the impediment preventing her from fasting has been removed. The Sharia maxim in this regard states: "When the impediment is removed, the obligation returns."
She should then make the intention to fast before Fajr and perform ghusl (ritual purification) for prayer, whether before or after Fajr.

What is the ruling on the cessation of blood after (40) days from delivery, but later continued sporadically during two days of Ramadan?

Once postpartum bleeding (Nifas) ceases, and the woman is certain that it won`t reoccur, then she becomes ritually pure and so she is free to make Ghusl (purificatory bath), pray, and fast. If the bleeding reoccurs before fifteen days from its cessation, and before the end of (60) days after delivery, then the ruling on postpartum bleeding is effective, and her fasting and prayer are null and void, thus she must make up the fasting that she missed and not the prayer during those particular days.

If the bleeding ceases after 40 days following childbirth, but then returns intermittently during two days of fasting, what is the ruling?

 
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Whenever the post-natal bleeding (Nifas) ceases and the woman is certain it will not return, she has become pure; therefore, she must perform the ritual bath (Ghusl) and resume praying and fasting. However, if the blood returns within fifteen days of its cessation and before sixty days have passed since the delivery, the ruling of Nifas applies once again. Consequently, any fasting or prayer performed during that interval of purity is rendered invalid; she must make up for the missed fasts of those days, but she is not required to make up for the prayers. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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