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Islamic Ruling on Participating in Municipal Elections
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 13-03-2023

Islamic Ruling on Participating in Municipal Elections

 

Municipal elections are a legitimate means of expressing opinion freely and sincerely and a process of consultation that is in harmony with the provisions of Sharia. It aims to select municipal councils in all governorates to be in charge of running the affairs of cities and villages in terms of cleanliness, maintenance and organization on scientific and technical grounds to set them apart from other cities and villages.

Therefore, the responsibility of municipal councils is great one and can`t be shouldered save by those who are competent, capable, have the desire to establish justice, truth and kindness. This is in addition to being acquainted with that which lies in the benefit of the nation and citizens, and promotes the values of loyalty and belongingness amongst the citizens. Allah the Almighty says on the tongue of Yousef: "(Joseph) said: "Set me over the storehouses of the land: I will indeed guard them, as one that knows (their importance)." {Yousef, 55}.

One who is competent and honest in doing things deserves to be voted for Allah The Almighty Says on the tongue of Prophet Shu`aib (PBUH) (What means): "Said one of the (damsels): "O my (dear) father! engage him on wages: truly the best of men for thee to employ is the (man) who is strong and trusty"...." {Al-Qasas, 26}.

It is the duty of every citizen to elect the best, the fittest and the competent, and the Muslim should run his affairs of this life and the next in the right manner, as required by Almighty Allah. Since a Muslim`s witness will be written down, he/she should choose the most competent nominee as he/she will be held to account for that on the Day of Judgment. Allah Says {What means}:  "Their evidence will be recorded, and they will be called to account!" {Al-Zukhruf/19}.

It is no secret that the irregularities within the electoral process in terms of buying or forging votes are prohibited by Sharia.

We call on all Jordanians to unite in order to make the electoral process a success and to elect the most competent, as this has a direct and tangible impact on all citizens. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

I bought an apartment, and I am saving money to pay the remaining balance of its price — is zakāh obligatory on this money?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh is obligatory on all saved/hoarded wealth. Once the total wealth reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah— equivalent to the value of 85 grams of pure 24-karat gold) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it, zakāh becomes obligatory at a rate of (2.5%) — even if the wealth is earmarked for basic future needs, and even if the wealth's owner is in debt. Debt does not prevent the obligation of zakāh, nor is it deducted when calculating the zakāh due, based on the general and unrestricted wording of all the Qur'anic verses commanding zakāh, which draw no distinction between someone in debt and anyone else.
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik, from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "If someone possesses exactly the niṣāb, and owes an equivalent amount in debt, zakāh remains obligatory on what is in his possession, and the debt does not prevent this obligation" — meaning, the obligation of zakāh on what is presently in his possession.
The ḥawl (annual cycle) recognized for zakāh, as well as for the other sharī‘ah obligations that Allah, the Exalted, has imposed upon Muslims, is the Hijrī (lunar) year. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What should one who doubts the validity of his ablution and performs it frequently do?

Whoever doubts the validity of his ablution after finishing it, his ablution is valid. This is because the default is the validity of the ablution, and because doubt after finishing an act of worship doesn`t affect its validity. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it required to fast consecutively when making up missed fasts?

● It is preferable to fast consecutively when making up missed fasts if they were missed due to a valid excuse.
● However, if the fasts were missed without a valid excuse, then fasting consecutively is obligatory, because making up the missed fasts in this case must be done immediately.
Separating the makeup fasts goes against the obligation of immediacy, but if someone does so, their fasts will still be valid. However, they will be sinful for delaying without a valid reason.

What is the ruling on a woman who learns of her divorce or her husband's death after her *ʿiddah* has ended? And does the *ʿiddah* of a woman who abandoned mourning (*iḥdād*) for the whole period of the *ʿiddah*, or part of it, still end, even though she knew that abandoning it is forbidden?**

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The waiting period of a widow who is not pregnant is four months and ten days, based on the saying of Allah Almighty (which means): “And those of you who die and leave wives behind, they shall wait concerning themselves for four months and ten days” [al-Baqarah/234]. If she is pregnant, her ʿiddah ends with the delivery of her child. The ʿiddah is calculated by lunar months and begins from the date of death.
If her ʿiddah ends before she learns of her husband’s death, or of his divorcing her, she does not observe the ʿiddah upon learning of it, because her ʿiddah has already ended.
It is stated in al-Bayān fī Madhhab al-Imām al-Shāfiʿī (Vol.11/p.41), one of the books of the Shāfiʿī school: “If a man divorces his wife, or dies while he is absent from her, her ʿiddah is from the time of the divorce or from the time of death. If she does not know of the divorce or the death until her ʿiddah period has ended, then her ʿiddah has ended. If she learns of it before the end of the ʿiddah period, she completes her ʿiddah counting from the time of the divorce or death.”
As for a woman who abandoned mourning throughout the ʿiddah while knowing that it is forbidden, she is sinful, although her ʿiddah has nonetheless ended. And Allah Almighty knows best.

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