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Fatwa is Accepted only from a Scholar of Sharia
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 19-10-2022

Fatwa is Accepted only from a Scholar of Sharia

 

The General Iftaa` Department congratulates Muslims for the arrival of Ramadan and reminds that Fatwa isn`t accepted save from a scholar of Sharia. The Department asks Allah to make this a month of goodness, blessings, and victories for Muslims both in the east and the west.

Questions related to various aspects of life are frequently asked in this blessed month meeting the meaning of the following verse (What means): "if ye realise this not, ask of those who possess the Message." [An-Nahil/43]. This gives us great pleasure as it indicates the Muslim nation`s adherence to the religion of Islam, Thanks to Allah.

 

We remind our Muslim brothers that it isn`t permissible to deliver Fatwas in religious matters save by someone who is specialized in Sharia sciences and, as known to all, this era is one of specialty in all sciences including Sharia. Whoever delivers fatwas without knowledge has gone astray and led others astray, as was reported from the Messenger of Allah. Sharia science should be learned from the trustworthy scholars of Sharia because books contain aberrant and weak sayings and none knows the truth save the learned men of the faith.

 

Conversely, it isn`t permissible for a Muslim to seek fatwa from someone who isn`t well versed in Shariah sciences since Almighty Allah has condemned such individuals where He Said (What means): "Let them bear, on the Day of Judgment, their own burdens in full, and also (something) of the burdens of those without knowledge, whom they misled. Alas, how grievous the burdens they will bear!" [An-Nahil/25]. Therefore, the individual who acts upon the fatwa delivered by unspecialized persons will be held liable before Allah. In our country, thanks to Allah, there are many scholars of Shariah working in various faculties of Sharia, and they have obtained their knowledge through reliable scholarly methods. 

 

The Department communicates with the audience through all available methods where highly qualified scholars answer their questions. Last Ramadan, more than a thousand questions were answered. This is hard work but we are pleased to serve Allah and His religion.

 

Due to their specifity, some questions are submitted to the Board of Iftaa`, which includes an elite group of qualified Jordanian scholars.

Based on all of this, there is no excuse for anyone not to ask jurists of recognized competence.

 

We wish success to all and remind that the righteous predecessors used to say: "Be careful who you take your Din from/Indeed, this knowledge is your religion, so look whom you take your religion from."

Peace and blessings to you all.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Which is better during the day in Ramadan: reciting the Quran or performing voluntary prayers?

A Muslim should establish a daily schedule for reciting the Quran in Ramadan.
Once they have completed their daily portion (known as a wird or hizb), they can engage in other acts of worship, including voluntary prayers (nawafil). Prayer itself is called "Quran", because a significant part of it involves reciting the Quran.
Allah says: "BE CONSTANT in [thy] prayer from the time when the sun has passed its zenith till the darkness of night, and [be ever mindful of its] recitation at dawn: for, behold, the recitation [of prayer] at dawn is indeed witnessed [by all that is holy]." [Al-Isra`/78]

Is it obligatory to have an intention (niyyah) for every prayer?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is obligatory for the worshiper to have a specific intention (Niyyah) for every prayer, meaning they must consciously intend the act of worship they are performing. The intention is a pillar (Rukn) of the prayer, and the prayer is not valid without it. It is not a requirement to utter the intention verbally; rather, doing so is considered a recommended Sunnah. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

I bought an apartment, and I am saving money to pay the remaining balance of its price — is zakāh obligatory on this money?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh is obligatory on all saved/hoarded wealth. Once the total wealth reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah— equivalent to the value of 85 grams of pure 24-karat gold) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it, zakāh becomes obligatory at a rate of (2.5%) — even if the wealth is earmarked for basic future needs, and even if the wealth's owner is in debt. Debt does not prevent the obligation of zakāh, nor is it deducted when calculating the zakāh due, based on the general and unrestricted wording of all the Qur'anic verses commanding zakāh, which draw no distinction between someone in debt and anyone else.
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik, from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "If someone possesses exactly the niṣāb, and owes an equivalent amount in debt, zakāh remains obligatory on what is in his possession, and the debt does not prevent this obligation" — meaning, the obligation of zakāh on what is presently in his possession.
The ḥawl (annual cycle) recognized for zakāh, as well as for the other sharī‘ah obligations that Allah, the Exalted, has imposed upon Muslims, is the Hijrī (lunar) year. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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