Is a wife considered sinful if she asked for divorce because her husband married another woman?
A second marriage is lawful, and so it is impermissible for you to ask for divorce because of that. If you are certain that you won`t be able to deliver Allah`s rights and those of your husband`s , then it is permissible for you to ask for Khul`a (Divorce on the demand of the wife). However, you should exercise patience since after difficulties, there is easiness by the will of Allah.
What is the stance of Ahlus-Sunnah wal-Jama'ah regarding the historical figure known as 'the Sufyani,' who some say will appear at the end of times? And what is the stance of Ahlus-Sunnah wal-Jama'ah regarding the group that killed Al-Husayn ibn Ali (may Allah be pleased with them), particularly those who directly committed the killing, severed his head, and killed members of his family?
Most of the narrations about the signs of the Hour concerning the Sufyani, who is said to appear before the Mahdi, indicate that he is the leader of the army that will invade the Kaaba, and Allah will cause the earth to swallow them. We disassociate ourselves before Allah from those who killed Al-Husayn Ibn Ali (may Allah be pleased with them), supported his killing, or encouraged it, whether openly or secretly. The inner matters are left to Allah alone. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?
Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.
If someone bought a car from an interest-based bank and then sold it to another person, does the second person bear any sin if they use the car's price to pay the installments owed to the bank?
When the buyer purchased the car, it became their property, and the price became their responsibility. The bank acts as the seller's agent for receiving the payment. Therefore, there is no sin on the second buyer, God willing, as long as the bank does not impose an increase in the amount if a payment is delayed. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
