Is an elderly or chronically ill person required to pay additional fidyah if they delay it beyond the first year?
An elderly person or someone permanently unable to fast must pay fidyah by feeding one needy person for each missed day.
However, if they delay paying fidyah beyond the first year, no additional fidyah is required.
This differs from someone who delays making up missed Ramadan fasts (qada) without a valid excuse until the next Ramadan begins—such a person is required to pay an additional fidyah for the delay.
What should a person who was favored from Allah with a newborn, but couldn`t afford an Aqeeqah, do?
Aqeeqah (the sheep slaughtered on the seventh day from the child`s birth) is a desirable Sunnah for the financially able since Allah, The Exalted, charges not a soul beyond its capacity. Therefore, if the father couldn`t afford the Aqeeqah before the end of his wife`s confinement, then it isn`t due on him, and if he was able to afford it later on, then it is permissible, but if he didn`t until the child reached puberty, the latter can offer the Aqeeqah himself.
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on Making up Prayers Missed before Reaching Puberty?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Among the conditions for accountability for one's actions in the Hereafter is taklīf (religious legal responsibility) — meaning, possessing sound reason and having reached puberty. The signs of puberty are: nocturnal emission, menstruation, or reaching the age of fifteen [lunar years].
Whoever missed prayers before reaching puberty is not obligated to make them up, since taklīf did not yet apply to him at that time. Our master, the Prophet ﷺ, said: "The pen has been lifted from three: from the child until he reaches puberty, from the sleeping person until he wakes, and from the insane person until he regains sanity." [Related by Abū Dāwūd]
The method for making up missed prayers and fasts has already been explained in Fatwa No.
2705, and Fatwa No.
876. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?
A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.
