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Fasting the Day of Ashura If it Meets Saturday
Author : An Article by His Grace Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh
Date Added : 10-10-2016

 

 

The day of Ashura is the 10th of the month of Muharram and fasting on it is likable as told by the Prophet (PBUH) who said: "Fasting the day of Ashura is an expiation for the preceding year." [An-nissai` in Al-Sunn Al-Kobra].

In order for a person to receive the full reward from Almighty Allah, it is better that he/she fasts the 9th, 10th, and the 11th of Muharam, as stated by a number of scholars such as Ash-shafii` and others. If that was not possible, then he can fast Ashura with the day that comes before, or after it; however, if he fasted only on the day of Ashura, then it is permissible. Al-Imam An-nawawi (May Allah have mercy on him) stated: "The day of Ashura is the 10th of Muharam, and it is likable for a person to fast the 9th of Muharam as well." [Rawdat At-Talibeen].

Al-khateeb Ash-Shirbini said: "It is likable for a Muslim to fast on the 9th and 10th of Muharram to be on the safe side." [Mughni Al-Mohtajj].

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is fasting obligatory for a child?

Fasting is not obligatory for a child until they reach puberty. Puberty is determined by well-known signs, the most common of which are: nocturnal emission (for both males and females), menstruation (for females), or reaching the age of fifteen lunar years.
A guardian must instruct their children to fast once they reach the age of discernment, which is around seven years old, if they are capable of fasting.

What is the ruling on I‘tikaf in Ramadan?

I‘tikaf is Sunnah in Ramadan, and it is even more emphasized in the last ten nights, in the hope of witnessing Laylat al-Qadr.

What should one who doubts the validity of his ablution and performs it frequently do?

Whoever doubts the validity of his ablution after finishing it, his ablution is valid. This is because the default is the validity of the ablution, and because doubt after finishing an act of worship doesn`t affect its validity. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.

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