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Fasting the Day of Ashura If it Meets Saturday
Author : An Article by His Grace Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh
Date Added : 10-10-2016

 

 

The day of Ashura is the 10th of the month of Muharram and fasting on it is likable as told by the Prophet (PBUH) who said: "Fasting the day of Ashura is an expiation for the preceding year." [An-nissai` in Al-Sunn Al-Kobra].

In order for a person to receive the full reward from Almighty Allah, it is better that he/she fasts the 9th, 10th, and the 11th of Muharam, as stated by a number of scholars such as Ash-shafii` and others. If that was not possible, then he can fast Ashura with the day that comes before, or after it; however, if he fasted only on the day of Ashura, then it is permissible. Al-Imam An-nawawi (May Allah have mercy on him) stated: "The day of Ashura is the 10th of Muharam, and it is likable for a person to fast the 9th of Muharam as well." [Rawdat At-Talibeen].

Al-khateeb Ash-Shirbini said: "It is likable for a Muslim to fast on the 9th and 10th of Muharram to be on the safe side." [Mughni Al-Mohtajj].

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on one who wiped over his leather socks (*khuff*) while resident and then traveled, or wiped while traveling and then became resident? And likewise, what is the ruling on one who incurred a minor ritual impurity (*ḥadath aṣghar*) while resident, then traveled and wiped while traveling?

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Whoever wipes over his leather socks (khuffayn) while resident and then travels, or wipes while traveling and then becomes resident, before a day and a night have passed in both cases, completes the wiping period of a resident. If he wipes while resident and then travels after a day and a night have passed, he must remove the socks, because the period has ended. Likewise, if he wipes while traveling and then becomes resident after a day and a night have passed, he must remove them as well.
Whoever breaks his wuḍūʾ while resident and then wipes while traveling takes the ruling of a traveler as regards the duration of wiping, so long as he does not become resident. It is stated in ʿUmdat al-Sālik wa ʿUddat al-Nāsik (Vol.1/p.15): “If he wipes over both [socks] or one of them while resident and then travels, or wipes while traveling and then becomes resident, or doubts whether he began the wiping while traveling or while resident, he completes only the wiping period of a resident. But if he broke his wuḍūʾ while resident and wiped while traveling, he completes the period of a traveler, whether or not the full time of a prayer had passed over him while resident.” And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on one who performs ablution or the ritual bath while having nail polish?

Nail polish must be removed before ablution or ritual bath so that water reaches what is beneath it, because it is a barrier that prevents water from reaching that area. This is based on the hadith narrated by Ali (may Allah be pleased with him) from the Prophet (peace be upon him): "Whoever leaves a hair's breadth of his body unwashed from major impurity, such and such will be done to him in the Fire." (Reported by al-Bukhari). And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on forgiving a tenant next month's rent, with the intention of counting it toward zakāh al-māl?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It does not fulfill the obligation to count the rent owed on a house, or a portion of it, in lieu of zakāh. Rather, it is necessary to first transfer ownership of the zakāh amount to the poor person directly; only afterward may he be asked to pay the rent [from that money].
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik (p. 112): "If someone gives [money] to a poor person, stipulating that the recipient return it to him in payment of a debt owed to him, or says, 'I am making what you owe me into zakāh, so take it [as such]' — this is not valid. But if he gives it to him with the [unstated] intention that the recipient will use it to repay him, or says, 'Repay what you owe me, so that I may [then separately] give it to you as zakāh,' or the debtor himself says, 'Give it to me, so that I may [then] repay you with it' — this is valid, and there is no binding obligation for the recipient to actually fulfill this [informal understanding]."
We would also remind [the reader] of the ḥadīth of the Prophet ﷺ: "The Muslim is the brother of the Muslim: he does not wrong him, nor does he abandon him [to harm]. Whoever attends to the needs of his brother, Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, will attend to his needs. Whoever relieves a Muslim of a hardship, Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, will relieve him of one of the hardships of the Day of Resurrection. And whoever conceals [the faults of] a Muslim, Allah will conceal him on the Day of Resurrection." (Agreed upon). And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Can a person required to give kaffarah feed it to their own family members?

The kaffarah must be given to the poor and needy who are not financially dependent on the one giving the kaffarah.
If a person feeds it to their own family members, it does not count as kaffarah, and their obligation remains unfulfilled.