I wish to purchase an online account (a gaming account), and its ownership will be transferred to me. However, my friend will purchase it on my behalf, and I will repay him in deferred installments with an added profit margin to account for the installment sale. What is the ruling of Islamic Law on this transaction?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The ruling on selling electronic games depends on the ruling of the game itself: if the game is permissible, then selling it is likewise permissible. However, if the game contains Sharia violations that render playing it impermissible, then selling it in that case is neither valid nor permissible. Therefore, we advise the necessity of reviewing the Sharia guidelines for electronic games set forth in Fatwa No. (3369).
Accordingly, if the game is permissible, a person may purchase it, take legal possession of it, and subsequently sell it in deferred installments for a price higher than its purchase price. The General Iftaa' Department has permitted dealing through Murabaha, while emphasizing the necessity of observing the Sharia conditions required for this transaction; please refer to Fatwa No. (2861). And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling on wiping the white area behind the ears instead of wiping the head?
The obligation in ablution is to wipe some of the head; it is not a condition to wipe all of it. Wiping the white area behind the ears suffices for that. And Allah the almighty knows best.
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on the "wheel of fortune"?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
If entry into the contest is free of charge, meaning it is not paid for, and a company offers it to a customer so that he may enter a prize draw, then there is no objection or sin in it. In that case, it is considered a gift from the merchant. This is what appears in Iftaa Board Resolution No.
3/2010. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).