When is the prayer considered *adāʾ* (performed within its time): upon rising from the bowing (*rukūʿ*), or after rising from the prostration (*sujūd*)?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Whoever catches one complete rakʿah within the prayer's time has caught the prayer as an on-time (adāʾ) prayer. The rakʿah is complete when the worshipper raises his head from the second prostration (sajdah), even if he has not yet reached the degree of standing in which the recitation is valid.
It is stated in Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj (Vol.1/p.378): "What is meant by the rakʿah is the completion of all of it, with its two prostrations." End quote.
And in Ḥāshiyat al-Shabrāmallisī: "(His saying: 'a rakʿah') means that he raises his head from the second prostration, even if he has not reached the degree in which the recitation is valid." And Allah Almighty knows best.
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Note on terminology: Adāʾ refers to performing the prayer within its prescribed time, as opposed to qaḍāʾ (making it up after its time has ended).
If someone regularly fasts the six days of Shawwal, are they obligated to fast them every year?
A person is not obligated to fast the six days of Shawwal every year, even if they have made it a habit. However, someone who regularly performs a good deed should not abandon it as long as they are able.
What is the ruling on sacrificing a castrated animal or one with a missing tail?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is permissible to sacrifice a castrated sheep; as it has been established that the Prophet (peace be upon him) sacrificed:
"...two large, fat, horned, white-and-black, castrated rams (Mawju'ayn—meaning having crushed testicles)." [Narrated by Ibn Majah in his Sunan].
It is not permissible to sacrifice an animal that is missing its tail, or udder due to being cut off. This is in contrast to an animal that was naturally born without a tail, or udder; such an animal is valid for sacrifice. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).