What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No.
2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
I own a pharmacy and have only merchandise. A full year (*ḥawl*) has passed and I have no cash. How do I pay the zakāh?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Zakāh must be paid immediately from the day it becomes due, and delaying it is forbidden when one is able to pay it, because it is the right of the poor, and it is forbidden to delay giving people their rights except for a valid Sharīʿah excuse. Shaykh al-Islām Imam al-Nawawī (may Allah have mercy on him) said: “In our school, zakāh must be paid out immediately. Once it becomes due and he is able to pay it, it is not permissible to delay it. If he is unable, he may delay it until he is able. If he delays it after being able, he is disobedient and becomes liable for it.” [al-Majmūʿ Sharḥ al-Muhadhdhab, Vol.5/p.333]
If cash is not available to pay the zakāh and the only option is to pay in installments, he must pay it, even if in installments, from the proceeds of the merchandise that is sold after the time the zakāh became due, by deducting a set amount from each day’s takings. And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling on the white discharge (*Al-Qassat al-Bayda'*) if it is in a very small amount—is it considered a sign of purity?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Among the signs of purity (Tahr) for a woman is the white discharge (Al-Qassat al-Bayda'), which is a clear, pure white fluid, regardless of whether it is minimal in quantity, or complete dryness (Jafaf), wherein secretions cease entirely such that if a white cotton cloth is inserted, it comes out completely clean. Once a woman observes either of these two signs, she has attained ritual purity.
Furthermore, another sign of purity is when the duration of the menstrual period exceeds the maximum limit of menstruation, which is fifteen days. If it exceeds this period, it becomes evident that she is experiencing non-menstrual bleeding (Istihadah).
Is it permissible for a suitor to go out with his fiancé upon the conclusion of the marriage contract?
Upon the conclusion of the marriage contract, the woman becomes lawful for her husband. However, the customary practice should be observed in this regard since rights could be lost in case of divorce, or death.
