What are the Sharia consequences when the sacrificial time for the uḍḥiyyah comes to an end?
All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
If the sun sets at the end of the last of the Days of Tashrīq and the sacrificial animal (uḍḥiyyah) has not yet been slaughtered, then its prescribed time has elapsed. Should one slaughter it thereafter, it will not be considered a valid uḍḥiyyah.
However, if the sacrifice was vowed (mandhūrah), then it remains obligatory to slaughter it — and it shall be carried out as a make-up (qaḍā') of the vow, with its meat distributed in the rightful channels designated for such sacrifices.
It is stated in Bushrā al-Karīm (p. 702): "If one slaughters after the sunset of the last of the Days of Tashrīq... it isn`t considered a valid uḍḥiyyah, unless it was vowed — in which case it is carried out as qaḍā'."
And Allah Almighty knows best.
Is it valid for the 'aqīqah to be performed using the newborn child's own wealth?
All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is not permissible for the guardian to perform the 'aqīqah using the newborn child's own wealth, because the 'aqīqah is a voluntary act of giving (tabarru'), and a guardian is prohibited from making voluntary expenditures from the child's wealth. Should he do so, he becomes financially liable for what he spent. And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling if a postpartum woman becomes pure before forty days; are acts of worship obligatory upon her, and is she permissible for her husband?
If the postpartum woman becomes definitely pure before forty days, she must perform the ritual bath and perform acts of worship as a pure woman does. What was prohibited for her also becomes permissible, so she becomes permissible for her husband after her bath. The minimum duration for postpartum bleeding is a moment (an instant), and its usual maximum is forty days. Reaching forty days is not a condition; rather, it is sufficient for the blood to stop or to see the white discharge (qassa bayda'). And Allah the Almighty knows best.
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
