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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(233): "Ruling on Producing Non-Alcoholic Drinks Using the Same Line that Produces Alcoholic Drinks"

Date Added : 20-03-2017

Resolution No.(233)(1/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Producing Non-Alcoholic Drinks Using the Same Line that Produces Alcoholic Drinks"

Date: (7/Jumada Al-Akhirah/1438 AH), corresponding to (6/3/2017).

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

During the second session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question sent from the Director-General of Food and Drug Administration, His Excellency Dr. Obeidat, and it reads as follows:

Could your Grace clarify the ruling of Sharia on the letter of the Jordan Company for Investments in which they demand canning non-alcoholic drinks using the exact line that produces alcoholic drinks after having that line cleaned thoroughly with water, steam and different sterilizers, and after every produced quantity. It is worth noting that the preparation process of both types of drinks is completely separated. Moreover, the Company is willing to test different samples from the non-alcoholic drinks to make sure that they are alcohol-free, and that the product itself matches the technical specifications set for it?

Answer: After deliberations, the Board decided the following:

Prudence in matters related to drinks is among the essentials of Ijtihad (Independent reasoning), and it relies on many an evidence from Sharia. One of these is that the Prophet (PBUH) prohibited his companions from storing non-alcoholic drinks in certain utensils, namely Al-Hantam (pitcher smeared with pitch) and the Gourd because they could cause the liquid to be become intoxicating. Therefore, this prohibition aims to prevent harm.

Accordingly, the Iftaa` Board is of the view that it isn`t permissible for any factory to produce lawful drinks using the exact production line of unlawful drinks. This is in order to leave no room for error during the production process and to prohibit what may lead to committing sins. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Grand Mufti of Jordan

Vice-Chairman of Iftaa` Board/Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaaz/Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawee/Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa/Member

Judge Khaled Wuraikat/Member

Dr. Mohammad al-Zou`bi/Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the expiation for perjury?

Perjury is forbidden and one of the major sins that require turning to Allah in repentance, seeking His forgiveness, giving back rights to whom they belong, or seeking their forgiveness, and expiating for that oath.

What is the ruling on someone who dies while having missed fasts?

● If a person dies before having the opportunity to make up the missed fasts—such as someone whose excuse (e.g., illness) persisted until their death—then no makeup fast (qada), fidyah, or sin applies to them.
● However, if they had the ability to make up the fasts but did not do so before passing away, the missed fasts must be compensated by giving a mudd of food for each missed day from their estate.
The Prophet ﷺ said: "Whoever dies while having a month’s fast due, one needy person should be fed per day on their behalf." [Narrated by At-Tirmidhi]
Additionally, a guardian (wali) may fast on their behalf, as the Prophet ﷺ said: "Whoever dies while having missed fasts, their guardian should fast on their behalf." [Narrated by Al-Bukhari and Muslim]
In another narration: "If they wish." This indicates that both feeding the needy and fasting on behalf of the deceased are permissible options.

What should one who doubts the validity of his ablution and performs it frequently do?

Whoever doubts the validity of his ablution after finishing it, his ablution is valid. This is because the default is the validity of the ablution, and because doubt after finishing an act of worship doesn`t affect its validity. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a wife to give her money to her family as a charity, or a gift without asking her husband, or seeking his consent?

The wife has the right to give her money as a charity, or a gift to her family, or to other people after consulting her husband out of respect, and this is the meaning of treating on footing of kindness and equity. Therefore, if he wanted to stop her from helping her family, then there is no harm in not telling him.

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