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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(233): "Ruling on Producing Non-Alcoholic Drinks Using the Same Line that Produces Alcoholic Drinks"

Date Added : 20-03-2017

Resolution No.(233)(1/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Producing Non-Alcoholic Drinks Using the Same Line that Produces Alcoholic Drinks"

Date: (7/Jumada Al-Akhirah/1438 AH), corresponding to (6/3/2017).

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

During the second session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question sent from the Director-General of Food and Drug Administration, His Excellency Dr. Obeidat, and it reads as follows:

Could your Grace clarify the ruling of Sharia on the letter of the Jordan Company for Investments in which they demand canning non-alcoholic drinks using the exact line that produces alcoholic drinks after having that line cleaned thoroughly with water, steam and different sterilizers, and after every produced quantity. It is worth noting that the preparation process of both types of drinks is completely separated. Moreover, the Company is willing to test different samples from the non-alcoholic drinks to make sure that they are alcohol-free, and that the product itself matches the technical specifications set for it?

Answer: After deliberations, the Board decided the following:

Prudence in matters related to drinks is among the essentials of Ijtihad (Independent reasoning), and it relies on many an evidence from Sharia. One of these is that the Prophet (PBUH) prohibited his companions from storing non-alcoholic drinks in certain utensils, namely Al-Hantam (pitcher smeared with pitch) and the Gourd because they could cause the liquid to be become intoxicating. Therefore, this prohibition aims to prevent harm.

Accordingly, the Iftaa` Board is of the view that it isn`t permissible for any factory to produce lawful drinks using the exact production line of unlawful drinks. This is in order to leave no room for error during the production process and to prohibit what may lead to committing sins. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Grand Mufti of Jordan

Vice-Chairman of Iftaa` Board/Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaaz/Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawee/Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa/Member

Judge Khaled Wuraikat/Member

Dr. Mohammad al-Zou`bi/Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on swearing a false oath by the Holy Quran?

Swearing a false oath by the Holy Quran dips the oath-taker in Hellfire, and one who had done so should turn to Allah in repentance, seek His forgiveness, give back rights to whom they belong, and pay the oath expiation.

Is it permissible for one who sacrifices on behalf of another, with the latter's permission, to eat from the sacrifice?

It is permissible for someone who sacrificed on behalf of another with their permission to eat from it with their permission, and they stand in their place (act as their representative) in distributing it.
 
It is stated in Nihayat al-Muhtaj ila Sharh al-Minhaj (Vol.8/P.141): "And he—meaning the one sacrificing on his own behalf, provided he has not apostatized—has the right to eat from a voluntary sacrifice and his sacrificial gift; rather, it is recommended. As for an obligatory sacrifice, it is forbidden for him to eat from it, whether it was designated as such initially or as a liability in his dhimmah. And excluded by what has preceded is if he sacrifices on behalf of another, or if he apostatized, then it is not permissible for him to eat from it, just as it is absolutely impermissible to feed a disbeliever from it."(The text I found indicates the impermissibility of eating) ???
 
And it is stated in Hashiyat al-Jamal ‘ala Sharh al-Manhaj (Vol.5/P.262): "If a person offers a sacrifice on behalf of a living person with their permission, does he act as their representative in distributing it—on the grounds that permission to sacrifice is permission to distribute it—or does it depend on their explicit permission? This requires consideration, but the first view is not far-fetched." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on a fictitious marriage for the purpose of obtaining citizenship?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
There is no such thing in our noble sharīʿah as a "nominal" or "fictitious" marriage or divorce. Marriage and divorce are among the sacred ordinances of Allah, and it is not permissible to manipulate them or use them as a stratagem to obtain worldly gains.
The foundational purpose of a marriage contract is the permanence and continuity of the relationship between the spouses — to establish a family, and to bring forth righteous offspring. So sacred is this bond that Allah the Almighty Himself described it as a solemn covenant (mīthāq ghalīẓ), saying {what means}: "And if you wish to replace one wife with another and you have given one of them a great amount of wealth, do not take any of it back. Would you take it in injustice and manifest sin? And how could you take it while you have gone in unto each other and they have taken from you a solemn covenant?" [Al-Nisāʾ/ 20–21]
Accordingly, it is not permissible to resort to manipulation and deception in contracts that Allah, Mighty and Majestic, has described as a "solemn covenant" — all for the sake of material and worldly benefit. Marriage is built upon permanence and does not admit of a fixed time limit. If a time limit is stipulated in the contract, the contract is rendered invalid by the consensus of the jurists. Similarly, marriage is impermissible when there exists a mutual, concealed intention to limit its duration — even if no time limit is explicitly mentioned in the contract — for this constitutes a form of unlawful circumvention of the sharīʿah. This is to say nothing of the lying and deception that such conduct involves, the prohibition of which needs no elaboration. Lying, deception, and fraud for the purpose of obtaining worldly gains are among the gravest of sins.
If, however, the marriage contract is first concluded in a valid sharʿī manner and then registered civilly, it is sound and fully valid. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible to pay the Fitr Zakah (obligatory charity) of Ramadan on behalf of a dead person?

The Fitr Zakah of Ramadhaan isn`t due on one who had passed away before the sunset of the last day of Ramadan. And Allah Knows Best.

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