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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(233): "Ruling on Producing Non-Alcoholic Drinks Using the Same Line that Produces Alcoholic Drinks"

Date Added : 20-03-2017

Resolution No.(233)(1/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Producing Non-Alcoholic Drinks Using the Same Line that Produces Alcoholic Drinks"

Date: (7/Jumada Al-Akhirah/1438 AH), corresponding to (6/3/2017).

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

During the second session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question sent from the Director-General of Food and Drug Administration, His Excellency Dr. Obeidat, and it reads as follows:

Could your Grace clarify the ruling of Sharia on the letter of the Jordan Company for Investments in which they demand canning non-alcoholic drinks using the exact line that produces alcoholic drinks after having that line cleaned thoroughly with water, steam and different sterilizers, and after every produced quantity. It is worth noting that the preparation process of both types of drinks is completely separated. Moreover, the Company is willing to test different samples from the non-alcoholic drinks to make sure that they are alcohol-free, and that the product itself matches the technical specifications set for it?

Answer: After deliberations, the Board decided the following:

Prudence in matters related to drinks is among the essentials of Ijtihad (Independent reasoning), and it relies on many an evidence from Sharia. One of these is that the Prophet (PBUH) prohibited his companions from storing non-alcoholic drinks in certain utensils, namely Al-Hantam (pitcher smeared with pitch) and the Gourd because they could cause the liquid to be become intoxicating. Therefore, this prohibition aims to prevent harm.

Accordingly, the Iftaa` Board is of the view that it isn`t permissible for any factory to produce lawful drinks using the exact production line of unlawful drinks. This is in order to leave no room for error during the production process and to prohibit what may lead to committing sins. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Grand Mufti of Jordan

Vice-Chairman of Iftaa` Board/Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaaz/Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawee/Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa/Member

Judge Khaled Wuraikat/Member

Dr. Mohammad al-Zou`bi/Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

If a woman becomes pure from menstruation before the Fajr Adhan in Ramadan, is she required to fast?

If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) before the Fajr Adhan, she must fast, as the impediment preventing her from fasting has been removed. The Sharia maxim in this regard states: "When the impediment is removed, the obligation returns."
She should then make the intention to fast before Fajr and perform ghusl (ritual purification) for prayer, whether before or after Fajr.

What is the ruling on the ablution of one who touches his wife without a barrier?

In the Shafi'i school, a man's ablution is invalidated by touching his wife if their skins meet (in any place) without a barrier, whether the touch is intentional or accidental. An exception to this is touching hair, teeth, or nails; these do not invalidate ablution. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a woman in her menstrual period to recite from the Mus-haf (copy of the Quran ), or to recite by heart?

A menstruating woman is permitted neither to recite nor to touch the Quran according to what Ali Bin Abi Talib (May Allah be pleased with him) reported about the Prophet (PBUH) who was only held from reciting the Holy Quran by Janabah (Major impurity) [Al-Tirmizi in a sound Hadith]. Although Janabah and menstruation are major impurities, a menstruating woman is permitted to supplicate Allah (Duaa`) and make Zikr (Tasbihat ), even if these involved saying words from the Holy Quran, provided that she does not mean the words for themselves but as a supplication, or Zikr. Moreover, she is rewarded for not reciting the Quran during her menstrual period because she abided by the injunctions of Allah.

What is the ruling on a mother giving the Zakat of her wealth to her children?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is permissible for a mother to give her children from the Zakat if they are among those who are eligible for it—such as being poor (Fuqara), possessing no wealth, and not being sufficiently provided for by the maintenance (Nafaqah) of others. This is based on the statement of the Messenger of Allah ﷺ regarding Zaynab, the wife of 'Abdullah ibn Mas'ud (may Allah be pleased with them both): (Your husband and your children are the most deserving of those upon whom you spend in charity) [Narrated by Al-Bukhari].
 
It is stated in [Al-Hawi al-Kabir, Vol. 8/P.537]: 'As for the wife, it is permissible for her to pay her Zakat to her husband from all the designated shares... Our evidence is the generality of the saying of Allah the Almighty: "Zakat expenditures are only for the poor and for the needy", and the Hadith of Abu Hurairah that the Prophet ﷺ said to Zaynab, the wife of 'Abdullah ibn Mas'ud: (Your husband and your children are the most deserving of those upon whom you spend), and this is taken in its general sense.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

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