Is it permissible for a father to divide his property amongst his children except one under the pretext that he has paid for the latter`s tuition? This is knowing that his other children were given the opportunity to pursue their education but didn`t because they were educationally poor. Moreover, is he allowed to give his other children who have helped him with growing his business?

Is everyone obligated to follow the fatwas of his country, and if we adopt the fatwas of scholars of other countries, is it considered a sin?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Wolrds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.

It is permissible for the person who isn't specialized in Sharia sciences to apply the opinions of renowned scholars whom he trusts ,whether they be from his own country or not ,but if the scholars have different opnions regarding a certain issue/matter, then he must consult someone who is more knowledgeable than himself .It is preferable that you (the questioner) specify the case of your interest ,so that we could give you a more specific answer since some scholars deliver fatwas based on illogical/atypical opinions which should not be applied no matter what .And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.

Does ill-gotten money hinder the answering of the Du`a (supplication) and the means of subsistence?

Sins hinder the answering of the Du`a, and deprive the sinner from means of subsistence; whereas, acts of obedience facilitate making a living. Allah, The Almighty, Says (What means) : "And for those who fear God, He (ever) prepares a way out. And He provides for him from (sources) he never could imagine." [At-Talaq/2-3].

A man who was on travel prayed Duhr as four Rakhas upon leaving Tafilah heading to Amman. However, on his way to Amman, he prayed Asir as two Rakhas (Shortened). Is what he did correct from an Islamic perspective?