Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(81): “The Ruling of Sharia on Printing Two Copies of the Quran“

Date Added : 28-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(81) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

 "The Ruling of Sharia on Printing Two Copies of the Quran“

Date: 9/7/1425 AH, corresponding to 25/8/2004 AD.

 

 

 

 

Question: 

I have attached two copies of the Quran, and would like to know whether printing them is permissible or not?

First copy: Printed by Dar Al-Kahir, Beiruit, size 35/25 cm, 4th edition 1402, and includes a marginal index on each page of the Mus-haf.

Second copy: Memorization Mus-haf written on cards that hold Tafseer Al-Jalalain, first edition 2004 AD.

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah.

The Board is of the view that the marginal index in the first copy usually leads to concealing the marks indicating the Quran`s parts, Ahzaab, Arbaa`, pauses and instances of prostration. The Board sees that such a copy of the Mus-haf is lawful so long as it preserves the marks which indicate the above mentioned.

 

 

As regards the second copy, the Board has the following remarks:

1- This copy changes the order of the Quran`s chapters as  revealed from Allah The Almighty.

2- Writing the Mus-haf on cards eliminates the marks indicating its parts, Ahzaab, Arbaa`, pauses and instances of prostration.

3- Placing Tafseer {science of explaining the meaning of the Quran} Al-Jalalain behind these cards contradicts with the practice observed by Al-Salaf Al-Saleh {righteous predecessors} who kept the interpretation on the margins.

4- There are many methods for memorizing the Quran other than the cards method.

Therefore, the Board bans printing the second copy. And Allah Knows Best.

 

The Board of Iftaa`
Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izzaldeen At-Tamimi
Dr. Abdullah Al-Manasrah
Dr. Yousef Ghyzaan
Dr. Abdulmajeed Al-Salaheen
Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri
Sheikh Naei`m Mujahid
Sheikh Sae`id Hijjawi

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Summarized Fatawaa

My father has debts and asked me to repay them years ago, and I promised him I would do so upon his death — is it permissible for me to go back on my promise given that I am unable to repay them, especially since he refuses to contribute to repayment on the grounds that the debt has become my responsibility by virtue of my promise?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The established principle is that a father's debt is to be repaid from his own wealth, if he possesses sufficient means. As for the promise made by the son to repay it on his father's behalf, fulfilling such a promise is strongly recommended, and breaking it is considerably disliked. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Fulfilling a promise is emphatically recommended, and breaking it is severely disliked. The evidences for this from the Qurʾān and the Sunnah are well known." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn,Vol. 2/P.278] Shaykh al-Islām Imām Zakariyyā al-Anṣārī, may Allah have mercy upon him, further states: "The reason fulfilling a promise is not obligatory and breaking it is not forbidden is that a promise is in the nature of a gift, and a gift does not become binding except upon receipt." [Asnā al-Maṭālib fī Sharḥ Rawḍ al-Ṭālib,Vol. 2/P.487]
Given that the son does not possess the financial means to fulfil his promise to his father, breaking this promise falls beyond his capacity — and Allah does not burden a soul beyond what it can bear. Since the father himself possesses sufficient wealth to settle his own debt, repayment must be made from his own funds. Should he pass away before doing so, the debt is to be settled from his estate. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a woman to shake hands with her brother-in-law?

It is forbidden for the woman to shake hands with her brother-in-law because he isn`t a Mahram (unmarriageable) of hers.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on a fictitious marriage for the purpose of obtaining citizenship?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
There is no such thing in our noble sharīʿah as a "nominal" or "fictitious" marriage or divorce. Marriage and divorce are among the sacred ordinances of Allah, and it is not permissible to manipulate them or use them as a stratagem to obtain worldly gains.
The foundational purpose of a marriage contract is the permanence and continuity of the relationship between the spouses — to establish a family, and to bring forth righteous offspring. So sacred is this bond that Allah the Almighty Himself described it as a solemn covenant (mīthāq ghalīẓ), saying {what means}: "And if you wish to replace one wife with another and you have given one of them a great amount of wealth, do not take any of it back. Would you take it in injustice and manifest sin? And how could you take it while you have gone in unto each other and they have taken from you a solemn covenant?" [Al-Nisāʾ/ 20–21]
Accordingly, it is not permissible to resort to manipulation and deception in contracts that Allah, Mighty and Majestic, has described as a "solemn covenant" — all for the sake of material and worldly benefit. Marriage is built upon permanence and does not admit of a fixed time limit. If a time limit is stipulated in the contract, the contract is rendered invalid by the consensus of the jurists. Similarly, marriage is impermissible when there exists a mutual, concealed intention to limit its duration — even if no time limit is explicitly mentioned in the contract — for this constitutes a form of unlawful circumvention of the sharīʿah. This is to say nothing of the lying and deception that such conduct involves, the prohibition of which needs no elaboration. Lying, deception, and fraud for the purpose of obtaining worldly gains are among the gravest of sins.
If, however, the marriage contract is first concluded in a valid sharʿī manner and then registered civilly, it is sound and fully valid. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

 I`m keeping a plot of land (10 Dunums) for my children. Is it liable for Zakah?

Praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds.

Land that is purchased with the intention of ownership and personal benefit—meaning to retain it for use and not for trade—is not subject to zakāh, as such property is not considered from trade commodities (ʿurūḍ al-tijārah).
 
It is stated in Al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr:
“If it is property and one intends it for trade, then zakāh is due upon it; but if he intends it for personal possession, then no zakāh is due upon it.” And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.