Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(75): “Ruling on the System Applied by the Housing Fund of Jordan Phosphate Mines Company“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(75): “System Applied by the Housing Fund of Jordan Phosphate Mines Company“

Date: 22/3/1425, corresponding to 12/5/2004 AD.

 

The Board received the following question:

What is the ruling of Islamic Sharia on the system applied by the housing fund of JPMC?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

The Board is of the following view:

1- Loans granted by the above fund entail usurious interests as indicated in articles (9, 15, 16, 17, and 18) and this violates the rules of Sharia pertaining to the prohibition of usurious loans, for Allah Says in this regard: “but God hath permitted trade and forbidden usury.” {Al-Baqarah/2}.

2- Deducting (500fils) from the salary of every subscribing employee as a contribution for social solidarity is permissible according to Islamic Sharia, because it is based on cooperation which is promoted by Islam. Allah The Exalted Says in this regard {What means}: “Help ye one another in righteousness and piety, but help ye not one another in sin and rancour: fear Allah, for Allah is strict in punishment.” {Al-Mai`dah/2}.

3- Deducting (0, 0015) annually from the value of the loan (as an allowance for services provided by the fund and for social solidarity) isn`t permissible in Islamic Sharia because there lies the reason behind the prohibition of usury. However, it is permissible to deduct a specific, reasonable and fixed sum in return for administrative services of each loan, regardless of its amount and repayment span since the effort involved is the same. Nonetheless, there should be no mixing between the sum charged in return for administrative services and that charged for social solidarity.

4- Housing and life insurance of subscribers isn`t permissible in Sharia because it involves usury and gambling, which are classified as contracts of uncertainty and compulsion. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izzaldeen At-Tamimi
Dr. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Yousef Ghyzaan
Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi
Dr. Wasif Abdulwahaab
Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi
Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia
Sheikh Nai`em Mujahid
Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

 

 

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on one who vows to fast a specific or non-specific year? Are the two Eids, the days of Tashreeq, Ramadan, and the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding included in them? And do these days break the consecutiveness if it was intended?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If someone makes a vow (Nadr) to fast a specific, designated year, this vow does not include the days of Eid, the days of Tashreeq (the three days following Eid al-Adha), Ramadan, or the days of menstruation (Hayd) and postnatal bleeding (Nifas). Furthermore, there is no requirement to make up (Qada) these specific days.
 
However, if someone vows to fast a year that is not specifically designated (i.e., any twelve-month period) and stipulates that the fasting must be consecutive, they are bound by that condition. They must not fast on the days of Eid, during Ramadan, or during menstruation, but they are required to make up these days afterward—with the exception of the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, which do not need to be made up.
 
It is stated in Hashiyat al-Bajuri ‘ala Sharh Ibn Qasim ({Vol.2/P.606): 'If one vows to fast a specific year, the Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, and days of menstruation or postnatal bleeding are not included. This is because Ramadan does not accept any fast other than its own, and the others do not accept fasting at all. Therefore, they do not enter into the vow, and no makeup is required for them because they are legally excluded—contrary to Al-Rafi’i regarding menstruation and postnatal bleeding.
 
If one vows to fast a non-designated year: if they stipulated consecutiveness (Tatuabu’) in their vow, they must fulfill it; otherwise, they are not bound to it. Consecutiveness is not broken by the days that do not enter into the specific year vow (Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, menstruation, and postnatal bleeding). However, one must make up the days missed—excluding the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding—immediately following the end of the year. As for the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, it is not made up, contrary to Ibn al-Rif’ah, who argued that it must be made up just like Ramadan.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Is a menstruating woman obliged to pray during menses, and should she make up missed prayers?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds                                                                                                                                                                        A menstruating woman is prohibited from prayer during her menses, and she isn`t obliged to make up missed prayers. And Allah Knows Best.

What is the ruling on ablution if vaginal discharge is expelled, and is it impure?

If these discharges exit from the external genitalia (apparent part of the vagina), they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution. If they exit from the internal part, they are impure and do invalidate ablution. If it is uncertain whether they are from the internal or external part, they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution.
 
The apparent part is what becomes visible when sitting, and what the husband's penis reaches during intercourse is considered part of the apparent. The internal part is what is beyond that. And Allah the Almighty knows best.