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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No. (169): "The Heirs aren`t Entitled to the Inheritance, Save after Paying off the Deceased`s Debts"

Date Added : 25-10-2015

Resolution No. (169), By The Board of Iftaa', Researches and Islamic Studies:

"Resolution No. (169) "The Heirs aren`t Entitled to any portion of Inheritance, Save after Paying off the Deceased`s Debts"

Date: (25/9/1432AH), corresponding to (25/8/ 2011AD)

 

Praise be to Allah, peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad and upon His Family and companions.

During the above given date, the Board reviewed  the following question:

My brother (May Allah have mercy on his soul) was killed in line of duty. He has been indebted with almost forty thousand dinars as installments of a flat that he purchased through the Jordan Islamic Bank - (300JDs) per month. (82885JDs) are due to his heirs and this amount was given to them in cheques with different payments. However, they have refused to pay off his debts. What is the Sharia ruling on this and can they take their shares from the estate before paying off the deceased`s debts?

After thorough study and deliberation ,the Board  decided the following :

The heirs aren`t entitled to take anything from the deceased`s estate, save after paying off his debts because Allah Says in the verses on inheritance (What means): “After any bequest they may bequeath, or any debt.” {An`Nisa`/12}. And Abdullah bin Amr bin Al-Aaas (May Allah Be pleased with them) reported that the Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: “A martyr is exempt of all sins except debt.” {Muslim, 4991}.

Accordingly, the heirs are not entitled to anything from the property of the deceased  except after paying off his debts. However, if they had taken their shares from the inheritance  and later on found out that he was indebted, then each of them - young or old - must pay the debt percentage due on their share. Any heir who abstains from doing so is considered sinful according to Islamic Sharia and is to be called to account for denying  the right of the deceased regarding the settlement of the latter`s debt before Allah.

Therefore, if all of the heirs  pay off  the debt  from  their shares ,the flat becomes theirs – each according to his/her share – and the rest of the inheritance is divided amongst them according to Sharia.

The Board is of the view that  the heirs should treat the children of the martyred mercifully and compassionately, and not to leave them homeless because Allah Says (What means): “And let them fear those who, if they leave behind them weak offspring would be afraid for them; let them fear God and speak pertinent words. “ {An-Nisa`/9}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board 

The General Mufti of The Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan :His Eminence , Abd Al-Kareem Al-Khasawneh

Vice Head of Iftaa` Board:  His Eminence Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr.Yahia Al-Botosh/member

His Eminence :Sheikh Sa`id Al-Hijawi/member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/member

His Excellency : Judge Sari Attieh/member

.Dr.Abdulrahman Ibdaah/member

Dr.Mohammad Oglah Al-Ibrahim/member

Dr.Abdulnasir Abulbasal/member

Dr.Mohammad Al-Zo`bi/member

Dr.Mohammad Al-Gharaibeh/member

Executive Secretary of Iftaa`Board:Sheikh Mohammad Al-Hinaiti

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Does having a wet dream during the day in Ramadan break the fast?

Having a wet dream during the day in Ramadan does not invalidate the fast. However, one must perform ghusl (ritual purification) to ensure they do not miss their prayers.

What is the ruling on Tarawih prayer?

Tarawih prayer is a confirmed Sunnah (Sunnah Mu’akkadah).

A woman became pure [from menstruation] before Fajr, but did not perform ghusl until after sunrise — what is the ruling on her fast?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Her fast is valid, since ghusl (ritual bathing) is not a condition for the validity of the fast, but rather for the validity of the prayer. However, she is sinful for delaying the Fajr prayer beyond its designated time without a valid excuse.
It is known that the time for Fajr prayer ends at sunrise. Nevertheless, she must still perform ghusl, and make up the Fajr prayer. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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