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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No. (169): "The Heirs aren`t Entitled to the Inheritance, Save after Paying off the Deceased`s Debts"

Date Added : 25-10-2015

Resolution No. (169), By The Board of Iftaa', Researches and Islamic Studies:

"Resolution No. (169) "The Heirs aren`t Entitled to any portion of Inheritance, Save after Paying off the Deceased`s Debts"

Date: (25/9/1432AH), corresponding to (25/8/ 2011AD)

 

Praise be to Allah, peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad and upon His Family and companions.

During the above given date, the Board reviewed  the following question:

My brother (May Allah have mercy on his soul) was killed in line of duty. He has been indebted with almost forty thousand dinars as installments of a flat that he purchased through the Jordan Islamic Bank - (300JDs) per month. (82885JDs) are due to his heirs and this amount was given to them in cheques with different payments. However, they have refused to pay off his debts. What is the Sharia ruling on this and can they take their shares from the estate before paying off the deceased`s debts?

After thorough study and deliberation ,the Board  decided the following :

The heirs aren`t entitled to take anything from the deceased`s estate, save after paying off his debts because Allah Says in the verses on inheritance (What means): “After any bequest they may bequeath, or any debt.” {An`Nisa`/12}. And Abdullah bin Amr bin Al-Aaas (May Allah Be pleased with them) reported that the Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: “A martyr is exempt of all sins except debt.” {Muslim, 4991}.

Accordingly, the heirs are not entitled to anything from the property of the deceased  except after paying off his debts. However, if they had taken their shares from the inheritance  and later on found out that he was indebted, then each of them - young or old - must pay the debt percentage due on their share. Any heir who abstains from doing so is considered sinful according to Islamic Sharia and is to be called to account for denying  the right of the deceased regarding the settlement of the latter`s debt before Allah.

Therefore, if all of the heirs  pay off  the debt  from  their shares ,the flat becomes theirs – each according to his/her share – and the rest of the inheritance is divided amongst them according to Sharia.

The Board is of the view that  the heirs should treat the children of the martyred mercifully and compassionately, and not to leave them homeless because Allah Says (What means): “And let them fear those who, if they leave behind them weak offspring would be afraid for them; let them fear God and speak pertinent words. “ {An-Nisa`/9}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board 

The General Mufti of The Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan :His Eminence , Abd Al-Kareem Al-Khasawneh

Vice Head of Iftaa` Board:  His Eminence Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr.Yahia Al-Botosh/member

His Eminence :Sheikh Sa`id Al-Hijawi/member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/member

His Excellency : Judge Sari Attieh/member

.Dr.Abdulrahman Ibdaah/member

Dr.Mohammad Oglah Al-Ibrahim/member

Dr.Abdulnasir Abulbasal/member

Dr.Mohammad Al-Zo`bi/member

Dr.Mohammad Al-Gharaibeh/member

Executive Secretary of Iftaa`Board:Sheikh Mohammad Al-Hinaiti

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the correct point at which to raise the hands when standing up for the third rak‘ah (after the middle tashahhud)?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Raising the hands while saying the takbīr [when rising for the third rak‘ah] is a recommended sunnah, and omitting it does not affect the validity of the prayer. The proper time for this is after rising from the middle tashahhud, once one has fully stood up.
It is stated in I‘ānat aṭ-Ṭālibīn (Vol.1/P.158): "His statement, 'and rising from the first tashahhud' — meaning, this manner [of raising the hands] is also a sunnah when he rises from the first tashahhud, that is, when he stands upright from it.
Consider [the question]: when precisely does the raising of the hands begin? Is it at the very start of rising from the first tashahhud, or after he has reached the minimum position of rukū‘ [i.e., once fully upright]? The apparent, [correct] view is the latter — even though the outward wording [of the text] might suggest the former — because at the very start of his rising, he is still relying on both hands [to push himself up, and therefore cannot yet raise them]."
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik (p. 53): "If his prayer extends beyond two rak‘ahs, he sits after them in the iftirāsh position, recites the tashahhud, and sends blessings upon the Prophet ﷺ alone, without [mentioning] his family [at this point]. He then stands while saying the takbīr, supporting himself with his hands; and once he has stood upright, he raises them level with his shoulders." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on someone who wakes up in a state of janābah (major ritual impurity) near the very end of the prayer's designated time, during cold weather — should he heat water in order to perform ghusl, even though the prayer's time will expire as a result, or should he perform tayammum instead?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
If the water is cold, and cannot be used due to fear of harm that is not ordinarily tolerable, or that would result in illness, then in this case it becomes obligatory to heat the water — even if heating it causes the time for Fajr to expire — and no sin is incurred in doing so, due to his valid excuse. He may not resort to tayammum (dry ablution) instead, since water remains available [and merely needs to be heated].
Imam Shihāb ad-Dīn Aḥmad ar-Ramlī (raḥimahullāh) said: "He was asked regarding a person who, if he were to use cold water, would experience harm that permits tayammum, and who has access to something with which he could heat the water — but if he heats it, the prayer's time will expire. Is it obligatory for him to heat it even if the time expires, or should he pray with tayammum within the prescribed time? He answered that it is obligatory for him to heat the water, even if the time for that particular obligatory prayer expires." [Fatāwā ar-Ramlī, Vol.1/P.98]
Imam al-Bājūrī (raḥimahullāh) said in his Ḥāshiyah on Sharḥ Ibn Qāsim (Vol.1/P.173): "And if he fears [harm] from using cold water, and is currently unable to heat it, but knows of a place where firewood is available, such that if he were to go there he would not return until after the prescribed time has expired — what appears [to be the correct position] is that it is obligatory for him to go and seek the firewood, even if the time expires as a result, as this is the position ultimately settled upon by ar-Ramlī, and as related from him by Ibn Qāsim." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on following the actions of the imam in prayer and how this following is achieved?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The follower (ma'mum) is required to follow his imam in the actions of the prayer. This "following" (mutaba'ah) means that the follower performs each action of the prayer after the imam has begun it but before he has finished it. For example, the follower bows (in ruku') after the imam has reached the position of bowing, then rises after the imam has risen. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "The imam is only appointed to be followed, so when he says the takbir, say the takbir; and when he bows, then bow; and when he prostrates, then prostrate" (agreed upon, i.e., reported by both al-Bukhari and Muslim).
It is stated in Mughni al-Muhtaj (1/505): "Among the conditions of valid congregational prayer (iqtida') is following the imam in the actions of the prayer... meaning that following the imam is obligatory in the physical actions of the prayer, not in its verbal utterances... Complete following (kamal al-mutaba'ah) is achieved when the follower's beginning of an action comes after the imam's beginning of that same action, while the follower's beginning of the action precedes the imam's completion of it" — end of quote, with slight paraphrasing.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Who is the one required to slaughter the 'aqīqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is Sunnah for the 'aqīqah to be slaughtered by the guardian of the newborn — the one upon whom the child's financial maintenance is obligatory — provided he is financially capable of doing so. 'Alī ibn Abī Ṭālib, may Allah be pleased with him, reported: "The Messenger of Allah ﷺ performed the 'aqīqah for al-Ḥasan with one sheep." — Narrated by al-Tirmidhī. And Allah Almighty knows best.

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