عربي
Home


Articles

Articles

Regarding Women Driving Cars
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 05-08-2025

The Response of the Iftaa’ Department to What Some Media Outlets Have Published Concerning "Women Driving Cars"

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

The General Iftaa’ Department had previously issued several fatwas, numbered (862) and (1296), affirming the permissibility of women driving cars and exercising their right to mobility without sin or prohibition. These fatwas were published on the Iftaa’ Department’s website on (25/07/2010) and through various media outlets as well.

The basis of this ruling is that mobility through means of transportation—whether traditional or modern—is a universal human right. The Sharia does not prohibit it, whether for men or women. Rather, it affirms and defends this right, considering the protection of human rights a fundamental objective of the noble Sharia. This is supported by numerous well-established narrations from the Prophetic Sunna, which document the Sahabiyat (The righteous women who met the Prophet Muhammad {Peace be upon him}, believed in him as the Messenger of Allah and died as Muslims) exercising this right without any objection. This is the fatwa that the General Iftaa’ Department has consistently upheld in response to numerous inquiries it receives regularly.

As for what was stated in Fatwa No. (914) regarding the rejection of arbitrary restrictions imposed by some husbands on their wives, it reaffirms the above. It is not a husband’s right to prevent his wife from using modern means of communication, such as the telephone, just as it is not his right to oppress her by depriving her of visiting her family or fulfilling her duties. Conversely, the wife must also consider the reasons for harmonious marital life and safeguard the household from discord and disruption. Thus, she should seek her husband’s permission before leaving for non-essential needs, as the husband is a guardian and is responsible for his household. His responsibility entails observing these rulings so that both spouses are clear about their rights and obligations.

What some media outlets have done—by isolating the phrase "driving cars" out of context, neglecting to mention the human rights affirmed by the fatwa, and falsely attributing to the Iftaa’ Department the prohibition of what Allah and His Messenger have not forbidden—is an act far removed from integrity and objectivity. It violates the covenants of truthfulness and trustworthiness that a Muslim must uphold in their work and duties. This necessitates that discerning audiences verify and ascertain the facts before engaging in discussions that lack any established basis.

We ask Allah The Almighty to Guide everyone to righteousness and Lead us all to the straight path.

Article Number [ Previous | Next ]

Read for Author




Comments


Captcha


Warning: this window is not dedicated to receive religious questions, but to comment on topics published for the benefit of the site administrators—and not for publication. We are pleased to receive religious questions in the section "Send Your Question". So we apologize to readers for not answering any questions through this window of "Comments" for the sake of work organization. Thank you.




Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on forgiving a tenant next month's rent, with the intention of counting it toward zakāh al-māl?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It does not fulfill the obligation to count the rent owed on a house, or a portion of it, in lieu of zakāh. Rather, it is necessary to first transfer ownership of the zakāh amount to the poor person directly; only afterward may he be asked to pay the rent [from that money].
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik (p. 112): "If someone gives [money] to a poor person, stipulating that the recipient return it to him in payment of a debt owed to him, or says, 'I am making what you owe me into zakāh, so take it [as such]' — this is not valid. But if he gives it to him with the [unstated] intention that the recipient will use it to repay him, or says, 'Repay what you owe me, so that I may [then separately] give it to you as zakāh,' or the debtor himself says, 'Give it to me, so that I may [then] repay you with it' — this is valid, and there is no binding obligation for the recipient to actually fulfill this [informal understanding]."
We would also remind [the reader] of the ḥadīth of the Prophet ﷺ: "The Muslim is the brother of the Muslim: he does not wrong him, nor does he abandon him [to harm]. Whoever attends to the needs of his brother, Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, will attend to his needs. Whoever relieves a Muslim of a hardship, Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, will relieve him of one of the hardships of the Day of Resurrection. And whoever conceals [the faults of] a Muslim, Allah will conceal him on the Day of Resurrection." (Agreed upon). And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is it permissible to slaughter a sheep on Eid al-Adha with the intention of charity (sadaqah) on behalf of a sick person, and with the intention of udhiyah (sacrificial animal) at the same time?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The udhiyah (sacrificial animal) is an act of worship intended for its own sake; therefore, it must be slaughtered with the intention (niyyah) of udhiyah.
 
Whoever intends to draw closer to Allah through this act of obedience with the intention of udhiyah, and also intends to gift the reward to another person, there is no Islamic objection to that. And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a husband to stop his wife from visiting her family?

A husband shouldn`t stop his wife from visiting her family, and it is disliked for him to do so because such an act makes them harbor feelings of hatred against him.

See More