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Regarding Women Driving Cars
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 05-08-2025

The Response of the Iftaa’ Department to What Some Media Outlets Have Published Concerning "Women Driving Cars"

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

The General Iftaa’ Department had previously issued several fatwas, numbered (862) and (1296), affirming the permissibility of women driving cars and exercising their right to mobility without sin or prohibition. These fatwas were published on the Iftaa’ Department’s website on (25/07/2010) and through various media outlets as well.

The basis of this ruling is that mobility through means of transportation—whether traditional or modern—is a universal human right. The Sharia does not prohibit it, whether for men or women. Rather, it affirms and defends this right, considering the protection of human rights a fundamental objective of the noble Sharia. This is supported by numerous well-established narrations from the Prophetic Sunna, which document the Sahabiyat (The righteous women who met the Prophet Muhammad {Peace be upon him}, believed in him as the Messenger of Allah and died as Muslims) exercising this right without any objection. This is the fatwa that the General Iftaa’ Department has consistently upheld in response to numerous inquiries it receives regularly.

As for what was stated in Fatwa No. (914) regarding the rejection of arbitrary restrictions imposed by some husbands on their wives, it reaffirms the above. It is not a husband’s right to prevent his wife from using modern means of communication, such as the telephone, just as it is not his right to oppress her by depriving her of visiting her family or fulfilling her duties. Conversely, the wife must also consider the reasons for harmonious marital life and safeguard the household from discord and disruption. Thus, she should seek her husband’s permission before leaving for non-essential needs, as the husband is a guardian and is responsible for his household. His responsibility entails observing these rulings so that both spouses are clear about their rights and obligations.

What some media outlets have done—by isolating the phrase "driving cars" out of context, neglecting to mention the human rights affirmed by the fatwa, and falsely attributing to the Iftaa’ Department the prohibition of what Allah and His Messenger have not forbidden—is an act far removed from integrity and objectivity. It violates the covenants of truthfulness and trustworthiness that a Muslim must uphold in their work and duties. This necessitates that discerning audiences verify and ascertain the facts before engaging in discussions that lack any established basis.

We ask Allah The Almighty to Guide everyone to righteousness and Lead us all to the straight path.

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who dies while having missed fasts?

● If a person dies before having the opportunity to make up the missed fasts—such as someone whose excuse (e.g., illness) persisted until their death—then no makeup fast (qada), fidyah, or sin applies to them.
● However, if they had the ability to make up the fasts but did not do so before passing away, the missed fasts must be compensated by giving a mudd of food for each missed day from their estate.
The Prophet ﷺ said: "Whoever dies while having a month’s fast due, one needy person should be fed per day on their behalf." [Narrated by At-Tirmidhi]
Additionally, a guardian (wali) may fast on their behalf, as the Prophet ﷺ said: "Whoever dies while having missed fasts, their guardian should fast on their behalf." [Narrated by Al-Bukhari and Muslim]
In another narration: "If they wish." This indicates that both feeding the needy and fasting on behalf of the deceased are permissible options.

What should someone do if they fasted for only 28 days in their country and then traveled to a place where Eid has already been declared?

If a person fasts in their country and then travels to another country where Eid has been declared, they must celebrate Eid with the people of that country.
● If their total fasts add up to 29 days, nothing is required of them.
● However, if they have only fasted 28 days, they must make up one day after Eid, because an Islamic month cannot be only 28 days.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is it permissible for a suitor to go out with his fiancé upon the conclusion of the marriage contract?

Upon the conclusion of the marriage contract, the woman becomes lawful for her husband. However, the customary practice should be observed in this regard since rights could be lost in case of divorce, or death.

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