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Islamic Ruling on Using Public Funds for Personal Purposes
Author : Dr Noah Ali Salman
Date Added : 23-01-2024

Islamic Ruling on Using Public Funds for Personal Purposes

 

Public funds are owned by all citizens and are spent on their interests as determined by the governing authority. In Islamic jurisprudence, public funds are often referred to as "Bait al-Mal al-Muslimin" (the treasury of the Muslims), and they have specific revenues and designated areas of expenditure. Taking from public funds without a rightful claim is one of the gravest prohibitions, as it constitutes a form of misappropriation. Allah the Almighty has emphasized this in the Quran, stating {What means}: "No prophet could (ever) be false to his trust. If any person is so false, He shall, on the Day of Judgment, restore what he misappropriated; then shall every soul receive its due,- whatever it earned,- and none shall be dealt with unjustly. "(Al-Imran, 161). The Prophet Mohammad (peace be upon him) also made it clear by saying, "By God, any one of you will not take anything from (the public funds) without any justification, but will meet his Lord carrying it on himself on the Day of Judgment.  "(Transmitted by Bukhari & Muslim).

 

This is evident in those who take in kind from the state wealth, and it also includes those who use state tools and properties for personal purposes, such as someone who uses official vehicles in ways not authorized by the governing authority. However, expenditure from public funds must be in accordance with the permissions granted by the governing authority.

 

 The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: "Some men acquire Allah’s Property (such as the funds of the Muslim state treasury, Zakah etc.) and they will go to Hell on the Day of Resurrection."

 

If we pay attention to the fact that the state treasury is composed of the total fees collected from the citizens for expenditure on public welfare, and what some countries allocate to the state treasury, meaning to the entire citizenry, we realize that whoever takes from public funds is taking from the wealth of all citizens. This is worse than someone who takes from the funds of a specific individual because if one wants to repent, they can seek forgiveness from that individual or return what they took. However, when taking from public funds, how can one seek forgiveness from all citizens?!

 

For this reason, it is necessary to avoid any potential harm and be cautious of any suspicion in such matter.

 

It doesn`t befit a Muslim to use the excuse that this evil act is being committed by others. This because hospitals have thousands of patients but no one wishes to be ill. In fact, the integrity of one's faith is more important than the well-being of the body, and the allure of ill-gotten wealth can only be deterred by the remembrance of standing before Allah on the Day of Resurrection. Therefore, Allah has forbidden usury and warned against it. He concludes the verses on usury by saying, " And fear the Day when ye shall be brought back to God. Then shall every soul be paid what it earned, and none shall be dealt with unjustly. " (Al-Baqarah, 281).

 

It is also prohibited to manipulate and tamper with scales and measures. Then, Allah emphasizes the significance of standing before Him, stating, "Do they not think that they will be called to account?- On a Mighty Day, A Day when (all) mankind will stand before the Lord of the Worlds? " (Al-Mutaffifin, 4-6).

 

It has been truthfully said: "Today is a day of action without accountability, and tomorrow is a day of accountability without action." How often have we seen in this world those who persist in engaging in what is forbidden, only to face negative consequences in this life, let alone the punishment of Allah in the Hereafter.

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on I‘tikaf in Ramadan?

I‘tikaf is Sunnah in Ramadan, and it is even more emphasized in the last ten nights, in the hope of witnessing Laylat al-Qadr.

What is the ruling on one who vows to fast a specific or non-specific year? Are the two Eids, the days of Tashreeq, Ramadan, and the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding included in them? And do these days break the consecutiveness if it was intended?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If someone makes a vow (Nadr) to fast a specific, designated year, this vow does not include the days of Eid, the days of Tashreeq (the three days following Eid al-Adha), Ramadan, or the days of menstruation (Hayd) and postnatal bleeding (Nifas). Furthermore, there is no requirement to make up (Qada) these specific days.
 
However, if someone vows to fast a year that is not specifically designated (i.e., any twelve-month period) and stipulates that the fasting must be consecutive, they are bound by that condition. They must not fast on the days of Eid, during Ramadan, or during menstruation, but they are required to make up these days afterward—with the exception of the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, which do not need to be made up.
 
It is stated in Hashiyat al-Bajuri ‘ala Sharh Ibn Qasim ({Vol.2/P.606): 'If one vows to fast a specific year, the Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, and days of menstruation or postnatal bleeding are not included. This is because Ramadan does not accept any fast other than its own, and the others do not accept fasting at all. Therefore, they do not enter into the vow, and no makeup is required for them because they are legally excluded—contrary to Al-Rafi’i regarding menstruation and postnatal bleeding.
 
If one vows to fast a non-designated year: if they stipulated consecutiveness (Tatuabu’) in their vow, they must fulfill it; otherwise, they are not bound to it. Consecutiveness is not broken by the days that do not enter into the specific year vow (Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, menstruation, and postnatal bleeding). However, one must make up the days missed—excluding the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding—immediately following the end of the year. As for the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, it is not made up, contrary to Ibn al-Rif’ah, who argued that it must be made up just like Ramadan.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

What is the ruling if someone wipes his head then shaves it - must he repeat it?

If a person performing ablution shaves his head after wiping it during ablution, he is not required to re-wipe his head or repeat the ablution. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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