What is the ruling of Islamic Law on a person who abandons prayer after reaching puberty—is he required to make them up?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Making up missed obligatory prayers is an Islamic duty just as performing them in their proper time is obligatory, and taking care of them takes precedence over performing voluntary prayers. This is established by the practice of our Supreme Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) when the polytheists distracted him on the Day of the Trench from performing the Asr prayer, so he made it up afterward, as well as the Hadith: "Pay Allah what is due to Him, for Allah is most deserving of fulfillment." (Recorded by Al-Bukhari)
Furthermore, it is valid to make up missed prayers at any time.
Whoever has missed a number of prayers and does not know their exact count, it is obligatory upon them to sincerely repent and exert their utmost effort to estimate their number. If they are unable to determine the exact count, they should base it on what is most probable according to their best judgment. They should then make them up gradually; if one performs one missed prayer alongside every current obligatory prayer, the matter becomes easy and manageable, and with the passage of time, one will complete what is owed, Allah willing. And Allah Almighty knows best.
Is a woman's prayer performed while following an Imam whose prayer is being broadcasted via the television valid, and does she receive the reward of congregational prayer?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Among the conditions for the validity of following an Imam (Iqtida’) is that the Imam and the follower must be in the same location. Therefore, the prayer of one who follows an Imam whose prayer is being broadcasted via television from a distant location is not valid. However, if the follower is with the Imam in the same mosque, the prayer is valid. And Allah the Exalted knows best.
What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No.
2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
What is the ruling on deliberately breaking the fast while being capable of fasting?
Whoever intentionally breaks their fast in Ramadan without a valid excuse has committed a major sin and bears great guilt. They must repent, seek forgiveness, refrain from eating and drinking for the rest of the day, and make up for that day after Ramadan.
They have lost an immense reward, which cannot be compensated even by fasting an entire lifetime as a voluntary act, because an obligatory fast cannot be equaled by voluntary fasting.
If the fast was broken through sexual intercourse, the person must:
● Make up for the missed fast (qada), and
● Perform kaffarah by fasting two consecutive months.
● If they are unable to do so, they must feed sixty needy people.
