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Statement from the Iftaa` Department regarding Tarawih Prayer
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 09-07-2023

 

Statement from the Iftaa` Department regarding Tarawih Prayer

 

 Tarawih Prayer is Twenty Rakhas

 

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

There are many questions regarding the number of Rakhas in Tarawih prayer.

 

Tarawih prayer is a Sunnah, and the four Sunni schools of thought are agreed that it is twenty Rakhas. In fact, the Malikis believe that it is thirty-six Rakhas. Based on this, whoever prays eight Rakhas has fulfilled some of this Sunnah, and will be rewarded accordingly. It is well-known that Tarawih prayer is the night prayer in Ramadan {Qiyam}. Abu Hurairah narrated that The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: “Whoever prays during the night in Ramadan out of sincere faith and seeking its reward from Allah, will have all of his previous sins forgiven." The Imams of the Sunni schools of thought have conveyed how it is performed starting from the righteous predecessors to the era of the noble companions {May Allah be pleased with them}. In Sunan al-Bayhaqi, from al-Sa'ib ibn Yazid, may Allah be pleased with him, he said: "During the era of Umar ibn al-Khattab, they used to offer twenty Rakhas during Ramadan as Qiyam. He said: They used to recite [the Quran] in groups of two hundred."

 

This is the practice in the Two Holy Mosques and the ancient Islamic cities. Whoever is able to perform it (Twenty Rakhas) completely has performed the complete Sunnah, and whoever is not able to perform it has performed some of it, and will be rewarded for what he has prayed, but he does not have the right to prevent or prohibit others from completing it. This is because prohibition is only for doing evil while prayer is the best of the deeds of the believers. The Prophet (PBUH) said: (Prayer is the best deed, so whoever can do more, let him do more. Narrated by al-Tabarani, and Allah the Almighty said: (Seest thou one who forbids- A votary when he (turns) to pray?)  {Al-Alaq, 9-10}.

 

May Allah guide us all to His obedience and help us to do so. May Allah bless our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions.

 

Peace, mercy and blessings of Allah be upon you all.

 

General Iftaa` Department

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on praying seated due to severe obesity, given that I experience hardship in performing the prayer — especially when rising from the ground after sujūd to perform the next rak‘ah?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Standing, when one is able to do so, is a pillar of the prayer. However, whoever would experience severe, intolerable hardship, or fears harm to himself or to a limb due to obesity, or finds that standing causes him to lose his khushū‘ (humble focus and concentration) in prayer, then there is no objection to his praying seated on a chair or on the ground, performing rukū‘ (bowing) and sujūd (prostration) through gesture — provided that the gesture for sujūd is made lower than that for rukū‘. Whoever is able, at any point, to properly perform any one of these pillars, is obligated to perform it in full; for omitting it is a concession that applies only in cases of genuine inability. The Prophet ﷺ said: "When I command you to do something, do of it whatever you are able." (Related by al-Bukhārī). As the scholars of fiqh have established: what remains possible is not waived on account of what is difficult.
The criterion for determining genuine inability, as chosen by Imam al-Ḥaramayn al-Juwaynī (raḥimahullāh), is that the worshipper experiences hardship that causes him to lose his khushū‘.
As for voluntary (nafl) prayer, there is no objection to performing it while seated, even if one is able to stand. However, rukū‘ and sujūd must still be performed [in their proper physical form] by anyone who is able to do so. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on a woman who learns of her divorce or her husband's death after her *ʿiddah* has ended? And does the *ʿiddah* of a woman who abandoned mourning (*iḥdād*) for the whole period of the *ʿiddah*, or part of it, still end, even though she knew that abandoning it is forbidden?**

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The waiting period of a widow who is not pregnant is four months and ten days, based on the saying of Allah Almighty (which means): “And those of you who die and leave wives behind, they shall wait concerning themselves for four months and ten days” [al-Baqarah/234]. If she is pregnant, her ʿiddah ends with the delivery of her child. The ʿiddah is calculated by lunar months and begins from the date of death.
If her ʿiddah ends before she learns of her husband’s death, or of his divorcing her, she does not observe the ʿiddah upon learning of it, because her ʿiddah has already ended.
It is stated in al-Bayān fī Madhhab al-Imām al-Shāfiʿī (Vol.11/p.41), one of the books of the Shāfiʿī school: “If a man divorces his wife, or dies while he is absent from her, her ʿiddah is from the time of the divorce or from the time of death. If she does not know of the divorce or the death until her ʿiddah period has ended, then her ʿiddah has ended. If she learns of it before the end of the ʿiddah period, she completes her ʿiddah counting from the time of the divorce or death.”
As for a woman who abandoned mourning throughout the ʿiddah while knowing that it is forbidden, she is sinful, although her ʿiddah has nonetheless ended. And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on eating or drinking forgetfully during the day in Ramadan or during voluntary fasting?

Whoever eats or drinks forgetfully while fasting, whether in an obligatory or voluntary fast, should continue their fast, for it is Allah who has provided them with food and drink. There is no difference between obligatory and voluntary fasting in this ruling.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.