I read the Qudsī ḥadīth: "Whoever breaks his wuḍūʾ and does not perform ablution has shown me harshness; whoever performs ablution and does not pray has shown me harshness; whoever prays and does not supplicate to Me has shown me harshness; and whoever supplicates to Me and I do not answer him, then I have been harsh to him, and I am not a harsh Lord." What is the authenticity of this ḥadīth?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
This ḥadīth was mentioned by al-Ṣaghānī (may Allah have mercy on him) in al-Mawḍūʿāt (p. 43), where he said: “Among them is their saying: ‘Whoever breaks his wuḍūʾ and does not perform ablution has shown me harshness; whoever performs ablution and does not pray has shown me harshness; (whoever prays and does not supplicate to Me has shown me harshness); and whoever supplicates to Me and I do not answer him, then I have been harsh to him, and I am not a harsh Lord.’”
Al-ʿAjlūnī (may Allah have mercy on him) cited what al-Ṣaghānī said in Kashf al-Khafāʾ (Vol.2/p.264). And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on performing the Witr prayer after the Adhan for Fajr prayer?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The time for Witr prayer begins after the ‘Ishā' prayer and ends with the rising of true dawn (al-fajr aṣ-ṣādiq). If a Muslim performs it at any point within this window, it counts as performed on time.
It is also recommended to make up a missed Witr prayer at any time — whether before or after performing the Fajr prayer, or at any other time of day. On the authority of Abū Sa‘īd al-Khudrī (raḍiyallāhu ‘anh), the Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: "Whoever falls asleep and misses the Witr prayer, or forgets it, let him pray it when he remembers, or when he wakes up." (Related by at-Tirmidhī)
Shaykh al-Islām, Imam Ibn Ḥajar al-Haytamī (raḥimahullāh), says: "The time for Witr prayer is between the ‘Ishā' prayer and the rising of dawn, based on the authentic ḥadīth to this effect. If this time has passed, it is permissible for him to make it up (qaḍā') afterward." [Tuḥfat al-Muḥtāj]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
Is it permissible for a husband to sell his wife`s jewelry if he was in a hard up?
A woman`s jewelry and dowry are her own property, and it is forbidden for the husband to take either without obtaining her approval. However, it is desirable for the wife to support her husband through considering her jewelry a sort of documented debt on him.
Is it permissible for a religious young Muslim woman to love a young man for Allah`s sakes?
Such love between the two sexes is from the devil`s evil suggestions, and a pure Muslim woman should beware of such a matter, and she shouldn`t mix with non-Mahrams (Marriageable ).