It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
A Christian woman wants to marry a Muslim man through an unregistered marriage contract and for a specific period because of certain circumstances. She is an adult and wants to know the correct procedure so as not to make any mistakes. What is the correct thing to do in this regard?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Every marriage should be conducted through court in order to preserve the rights of the spouses and avoid any accusations. In fact, a person shouldn`t be ashamed of what is lawful. Rather, he/she should overcome those circumstances and start in the correct way. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
In the last verse of Surah At-Tin, Allah Says (What means): "Is Allah not the most just of judges?" [At-Tin/8]. Is it permissible for us, while performing congregational prayer, to respond after the Imam recites it by saying: "Indeed, and I am among those who bear witness to that." ?
It is recommended for the worshipper to say 'Indeed' (Bala) silently after reciting or hearing the verse (/What means): "Is Allah not the most just of judges?" [At-Tin/8]. This is part of reflecting on the Quran during its recitation or listening, as Allah Says (What means): "Then do they not reflect upon the Quran, or are there locks upon [their] hearts?" (Muhammad: 24). Doing so helps in achieving humility and focus in prayer. And Allah Knows Best
I am a disabled woman who has vaginal discharges and can`t control her urine. Therefore, I combine prayers. Is that permissible?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his family and companions.
According to the Hanbali doctrine, it is permissible for the sick to combine prayers. In your case (Asker), it is better that you delay the noon prayer until a few minutes before the afternoon prayer in order to minimize the time span between the two and perform each alone. In addition, you can do the same with sunset and evening prayers. Finally, we ask Allah to bless you with recovery. And Allah Knows Best.
