What is the ruling on the cessation of blood after (40) days from delivery, but later continued sporadically during two days of Ramadan?
Once postpartum bleeding (Nifas) ceases, and the woman is certain that it won`t reoccur, then she becomes ritually pure and so she is free to make Ghusl (purificatory bath), pray, and fast. If the bleeding reoccurs before fifteen days from its cessation, and before the end of (60) days after delivery, then the ruling on postpartum bleeding is effective, and her fasting and prayer are null and void, thus she must make up the fasting that she missed and not the prayer during those particular days.
What are the conditions for the validity of the slaughtering process according to Sharia?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Regarding the Sharia-mandated conditions for the validity of the slaughtering process (Adh-Dhabh), they are as follows:
The Identity of the Slaughterer: The person performing the slaughter must be either a Muslim or from the People of the Book (Christian or Jewish).
The Required Cuts: Both the trachea (windpipe/breathing passage) and the esophagus (food passage) must be completely severed.
Stability of Life: The animal must possess stable life at the start of the slaughtering process. This is identified by clear signs, such as vigorous movement or the forceful gushing of blood after the throat and esophagus are cut.
The Tool of Slaughter: The tool used must be sharp, capable of cutting or piercing by its edge and not by its sheer weight or blunt force.
And Allah the Almighty knows best.
Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on owned land?
Zakah is due on the land used as an article of merchandise and was originally bought for that end. Zakah is due on it at the end of every lunar year. Its value is estimated, and (2.5%) of the total value of all such lands owned by the questioner is given as Zakah. However, no Zakah is due on the land used for building a house, or an agricultural purpose.
Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?
A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.
