Relieving the People of Gaza is a Legal Obligation

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Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?

Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.

Is a person who is in a state of Janabah (major ritual impurity due to having a marital intercourse, ejaculation, menstruation, and post-delivery impurities) sinful if he/she goes about his/her daily life activities in that state i.e. without making Ghusl (ritual bath)?

It goes without saying that a Muslim should always be in a state of ritual purity so as to be able to perform prayers and recite Quran. It is from Sunnah (Prophetic tradition) that a Muslim hastens to make Ghusl from Janabah, but he/she is not sinful in case he/she delayed that provided that he/she doesn`t miss prayers. However, it is permissible for him/her to go about their daily activities while in a state of Janabah, but had better bathe in order not to miss any prayer.

Is it permissible to sacrifice imported livestock (Such as Romanian, Australian, etc.)?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

As long as the sheep meets the prescribed Sharia age and is free from disqualifying defects, it is valid for sacrifice regardless of its country of origin. Therefore, it is permissible to offer sacrifices from various sources, such as: Romanian, Australian, Spanish, Indian, Sudanese, local (Baladi) livestock, and others. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

A man wishes to offer more than one uḍḥiyah (sacrificial offering), and intends by these sacrifices "on behalf of everyone whom Allah and His Messenger love." Is this intention valid?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.

The uḍḥiyah (sacrificial offering) is not valid with this intention, because if the sacrificial animal is from sheep or goats, it suffices for one person only; and if it is from cattle or camels, it suffices for seven persons.

However, one may sacrifice it on his own behalf, and then gift the equivalent of its reward to whomever he wishes.

Imam ar-Ramlī (raḥimahullāh) says: "Ash-Shāfi‘ī (raḍiyallāhu ‘anh) said: It is within the vastness of Allah's bounty, the Exalted, that He rewards the one giving charity as well. From this, the scholars of the madhhab said: it is recommended for a person to intend the charity on behalf of his parents, for example — for Allah, the Exalted, will reward them, without this diminishing his own reward in any way." He then relates, as the relied-upon position, the permissibility of saying: "O Allah, convey the reward of what I have recited specifically to so-and-so, and to the Muslims generally." Az-Zarkashī said: "For reward varies in degree — its highest form is what one designates specifically, and its lowest form is what one dedicates generally [alongside others]." [End of quote from Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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Relieving the People of Gaza is a Legal Obligation

Author : The General Iftaa` Department

Date Added : 09-07-2023

Relieving the People of Gaza is a Legal Obligation

"In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful"

Abu Hurairah [RAA) narrated that the Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said:

“……. A Muslim is a Muslim’s brother. He does not wrong, desert or despise him……..” {Related by Muslim}.

The General Iftaa` Department extends its sincere thanks to the Jordan Hashemite Charity Organization and the Royal Medical Services for their fulfillment of the collective obligation incumbent on all Muslims, and their continuous and organized provision to our brothers in Gaza - based on the royal directives - with some of the requirements of daily life: food, medicine, treatment, and clothing. This helps our brothers in Gaza to stand firm in the face of the difficult circumstances they face.

We urge all Muslims to cooperate with the Jordan Hashemite Charity Organization in sending aid to our people in Gaza. Indeed, it is Allah Who grants success.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for someone who is unable to fast to pay the fidyah (ransom/compensation payment) to himself, due to his own poverty?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.

It is not permissible, nor does it fulfill the obligation, for a sick person who is currently and permanently unable to fast to pay the fidyah (ransom/compensation payment) to himself, since it is a financial obligation owed by him, established as a standing debt upon him — much like any other debt he owes. If he were to pay it to himself, it would not thereby be discharged. So if he cannot find [anyone eligible to] pay it to, it remains a standing obligation upon him, and is not thereby waived. If Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, later grants him wealth, it becomes obligatory upon him to pay it out to the poor and needy.

Imam al-Khaṭīb ash-Shirbīnī (raḥimahullāh) said: "There is no difference in the obligation of the fidyah between the wealthy and the poor person; its benefit lies in its remaining established as a standing debt upon the poor person [until he is able to pay it] — and this is the more correct position (al-aṣaḥḥ), as indicated by the wording of ar-Rawḍah and its source text." [Mughnī al-Muḥtāj, Vol.2/P.174]

Accordingly: it is not permissible for a Muslim to pay the fidyah to himself while he remains poor. If the sick person is poor, he is not obligated to pay the fidyah immediately, and it remains a standing debt upon him until a time when he has sufficient means and wealth. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.

Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.

It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."

This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.

And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Does the 'aqīqah count as valid if it is slaughtered before the seventh day from the birth?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

The time during which it becomes permissible to slaughter the 'aqīqah begins from the moment the newborn is fully delivered from its mother's womb.

If the animal is slaughtered prior to the birth, it does not count as an 'aqīqah — it is simply considered an ordinary sheep slaughtered for its meat.

And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on praying while wearing shoes?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

There is no sin for a Muslim to perform prayer while wearing their sandals or shoes, provided they are free from any impurities (najasa). It was narrated that Anas bin Malik (may Allah be pleased with him) was asked: 'Did the Prophet ﷺ pray in his sandals?' He replied: 'Yes.'" (Related by Al-Bukhari).

It is stated in Fath al-Bari (Vol.1/P.494) by Ibn Hajar (may Allah have mercy on him): "Regarding the phrase 'praying in his sandals,' Ibn Battal said: 'This is understood to apply as long as there is no impurity on them; furthermore, this is considered one of the legal concessions (rukhas)." And Allah the Almighty knows best.