Does passing wind from the anus affect ritual purity?
Ablution is nullified by the passing of wind from the anus, but washing the anus is not required as wind leaves no impurity.
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on continuity (muwalah) in the ritual bath?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Continuity (muwālāh) means washing each part of the body immediately after the previous one, without leaving a gap long enough for the first part to dry before the second is washed. According to the Shāfiʿī school, continuity is a recommended act (sunnah) in both the ritual bath (ghusl) and ablution (wuḍūʾ) — it is not obligatory.
It is stated in Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj ilā Sharḥ al-Minhāj: "Likewise, continuity in the ritual bath is recommended, just as it is in ablution."
Accordingly, continuity in the ritual bath is a sunnah. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
Is "Bismillāhir-Raḥmānir-Raḥīm" a verse (āyah) of Sūrat al-Fātiḥah?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The basmalah ("Bismillāhir-Raḥmānir-Raḥīm") is, without question, a verse (āyah) of the Noble Qur'an, and according to the Shāfi‘ī school, it constitutes a verse of Sūrat al-Fātiḥah itself. Al-Fātiḥah is a pillar of the prayer, and it consists of seven verses, of which the basmalah is one. The prayer is not valid without reciting it, nor if any of the Fātiḥah's verses, letters, or shaddahs (consonant doublings) are omitted or altered.
It is stated in Bushrā al-Karīm (Vol.1/p.202), from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "The basmalah is a complete verse of it [i.e., of al-Fātiḥah] in practice — and it suffices, for this to be established, that there be strong probability (ẓann), especially given that this has come very close to certainty (yaqīn), due to the consensus (ijmā‘) of the Companions on its inclusion in the muṣ-ḥaf [the written text of the Qur'an] in its script, despite their extreme diligence in excluding from it anything that did not genuinely belong to it — to the point that they even [carefully regulated] its diacritical dots and vowel markings." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
What should someone do if they fasted for only 28 days in their country and then traveled to a place where Eid has already been declared?
If a person fasts in their country and then travels to another country where Eid has been declared, they must celebrate Eid with the people of that country.
● If their total fasts add up to 29 days, nothing is required of them.
● However, if they have only fasted 28 days, they must make up one day after Eid, because an Islamic month cannot be only 28 days.
