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Relieving the People of Gaza is a Legal Obligation
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 09-07-2023

Relieving the People of Gaza is a Legal Obligation

 

"In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful"

 

Abu Hurairah [RAA) narrated that the Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said:

“……. A Muslim is a Muslim’s brother. He does not wrong, desert or despise him……..” {Related by Muslim}.

 

The General Iftaa` Department extends its sincere thanks to the Jordan Hashemite Charity Organization and the Royal Medical Services for their fulfillment of the collective obligation incumbent on all Muslims, and their continuous and organized provision to our brothers in Gaza - based on the royal directives - with some of the requirements of daily life: food, medicine, treatment, and clothing. This helps our brothers in Gaza to stand firm in the face of the difficult circumstances they face.

 

We urge all Muslims to cooperate with the Jordan Hashemite Charity Organization in sending aid to our people in Gaza. Indeed, it is Allah Who grants success.

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on the fasting of a woman who has reached menopause if menstrual blood flows?

If a woman reaches the age of menopause (which is usually sixty-two) and her menses have ceased, then she sees blood after that, and its duration is not less than a day and a night (24 hours), it is menstruation (hayd). If it is less than a day and a night, she is considered as having non-menstrual vaginal bleeding (mustahada), so she fasts and prays. However, she must perform ablution for every obligatory prayer after its time enters, pray immediately, and be treated as a person with a continuous condition. There is no specific end limit for a woman's menstruation; it is possible as long as the woman is alive. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the due amount of food in expiation for perjury?

It is feeding ten indigent persons: 600 grams (for each) of the average food of your families such as rice, and it is permissible, according to Imam Ahmad Bin Hanbal, to give that amount in money if it was more useful to them.

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).